Evergreen Insurance Prep

Arizona Property & Casualty Insurance License, Practice Exams

Arizona Property and Casualty producer licensing (Prometric Series 13-34). National P&C insurance knowledge plus Arizona insurance law (mandatory 25/50/15 auto & UM/UIM, surplus lines, the P&C guaranty fund, cancellation/nonrenewal and workers' compensation), authored from public-domain statutes.
Content last updated 13 July 2026

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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Arizona exam you need 70% on each section.

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Unlock the full question bank

The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.

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Frequently asked questions

How is the Arizona producer licensing exam structured?

Arizona licenses Property and Casualty producers through Prometric (the Series 13-34 exam): 150 scored questions, 2 hours 30 minutes, with a national section and an Arizona state-law section each requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Arizona law - the 25/50/15 minimum auto limits and Motor Vehicle Financial Responsibility Law (Title 28), UM/UIM, surplus lines, the Property & Casualty Guaranty Fund, personal and commercial cancellation/nonrenewal, and workers' compensation (Title 23).

What score do I need to pass?

You need 70% on each section. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.

Are these real exam questions?

No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Arizona Revised Statutes (Titles 20, 23 and 28) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Arizona bank contains 980 questions (general insurance plus Arizona law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.

Do I need to create an account?

No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

Sample Arizona Property & Casualty Insurance License practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

The Business Auto physical damage coverage offers which coverage categories?

  1. Workers compensation
  2. Comprehensive, specified causes of loss, and collision ✓
  3. Uninsured motorists only
  4. Liability and medical payments in that particular circumstance

Why: BACF physical damage can be written as Comprehensive, Specified Causes of Loss (a narrower named-peril option), and Collision.

Under ARS 41-1080, before a state agency issues a license to an individual, the individual must provide documentation of:

  1. at least five years of Arizona residency
  2. citizenship or authorized alien status ✓
  3. a minimum net worth or surety bond
  4. prior insurance industry employment

Why: ARS 41-1080(A) requires documentation that the individual's presence in the U.S. is authorized (citizenship or lawful alien status) before a license is issued — therefore option 1.

Coverage E in a Homeowners policy provides:

  1. Personal Liability ✓
  2. Medical Payments to Others
  3. Other Structures
  4. Loss of Use

Why: In Section II of the Homeowners policy, Coverage E is Personal Liability, paying for bodily injury and property damage the insured is legally liable for.

Show more sample questions with answers & explanations

Inland marine transportation coverage frequently insures property:

  1. Permanently fixed to a building
  2. Only on the ocean
  3. Only inside the insured's premises in that particular circumstance
  4. While being shipped by truck, rail, or other land conveyance ✓

Why: Inland marine transportation coverage protects goods in transit over land (and inland waterways), reflecting marine insurance's roots in covering moving property.

A ship's captain orders cargo jettisoned to keep the vessel from sinking in a storm; the ship and remaining cargo are saved. The loss to the jettisoned cargo is handled as:

  1. General average, shared by all interests ✓
  2. A total loss of the vessel
  3. An excluded loss
  4. Particular average

Why: Voluntarily sacrificing cargo to save the venture is a general average loss, shared proportionally among ship, cargo, and freight interests.

Under ARS 20-451, for insurance other than life or disability, a producer may lawfully provide which of the following to an insured?

  1. A smoke detector or risk audit that helps prevent losses ✓
  2. A three-hundred-dollar gift card for buying a policy
  3. A cash rebate equal to ten percent of the premium
  4. Free transferable shares of the insurer's own common stock

Why: ARS 20-451(B) exempts ancillary loss-mitigation products and services such as fire or smoke detectors and risk audits from the anti-rebating prohibition.

Under ARS 23-901, a compensable 'personal injury by accident arising out of and in the course of employment' includes an injury caused by:

  1. A third person's wilful act aimed at the job ✓
  2. Any illness common to the general public
  3. A disease unrelated to the employee's work
  4. An off-duty recreational accident at home

Why: ARS 23-901(13)(b): it includes an injury caused by the wilful act of a third person directed at the employee because of the employment.

A policyholder misses a monthly installment (not the first) and the insurer cancels for nonpayment. Under ARS 20-1632.01:

  1. No notice is required for nonpayment cancels
  2. A 45-day advance notice period always applies
  3. A notice of cancellation must still be sent ✓
  4. The unearned premium need never be refunded

Why: ARS 20-1632.01(B): after the grace period the insurer must still send the policyholder a notice of cancellation for nonpayment.

To insure a $25,000 diamond ring for all-risk coverage with no special sublimit and often no deductible, the best option is:

  1. Increase Coverage A unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. Add inflation guard
  3. Add a Scheduled Personal Property endorsement / Personal Articles Floater ✓
  4. Rely on Coverage C

Why: Scheduling the ring on a Personal Articles Floater (scheduled personal property endorsement) provides broad coverage above the Coverage C jewelry sublimit, typically with no deductible.

Under ARS 20-661, a covered claim does NOT include:

  1. An insured's otherwise-covered first-party property loss
  2. Amounts due a reinsurer as subrogation recoveries ✓
  3. A third party's bodily injury claim
  4. An unearned premium refund

Why: ARS 20-661(3) excludes from covered claims any amount due a reinsurer, insurer or pool as subrogation recoveries and pre-insolvency attorney fees.

An insurer plans an investigative consumer report on a homeowners applicant. Under ARS 20-2107, before preparing it the insurer or producer must inform the individual that they may:

  1. waive all future privacy protections
  2. receive a cash payment for participating
  3. prohibit the insurer from any underwriting
  4. request to be interviewed for the report ✓

Why: ARS 20-2107(A) requires informing the individual they may request to be interviewed and, on request, receive a copy of the investigative consumer report — therefore option 3.

A rating method that uses an individual risk's actual past loss experience to adjust its premium is:

  1. Experience (merit) rating ✓
  2. Manual rating
  3. Judgment rating
  4. Class rating

Why: Experience or merit rating modifies premium based on the insured's own loss history, rewarding favorable experience.

Under ARS 20-1109, a misrepresentation in an application will NOT prevent recovery unless it is fraudulent, material, or:

  1. The insured simply failed to read the application
  2. The producer neglected to initial the answer given
  3. The insurer in good faith would not have issued the policy ✓
  4. The resulting loss simply happened to exceed the policy limit

Why: ARS 20-1109 bars recovery only if the misrepresentation is fraudulent, material to the risk, or such that the insurer in good faith would not have issued the policy had the true facts been known.

Under ARS 20-259.01, an insurer that pays an insured under uninsured motorist coverage may:

  1. Subrogate against the responsible uninsured motorist ✓
  2. Refuse to renew the policy at its next term
  3. Deduct the payment from future medical benefits
  4. Report the insured to a shared claims database

Why: ARS 20-259.01(I): the insurer may subrogate and sue the responsible uninsured motorist for reimbursement.

A new NFIP flood policy generally does not take effect until how many days after the application and premium are submitted?

  1. 10 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 30 days ✓
  4. 15 days

Why: The NFIP imposes a standard 30-day waiting period before a new flood policy becomes effective, to discourage buying coverage only when a flood is imminent.

Under ARS 20-2113, an insurer generally may NOT disclose personal or privileged information about an individual unless the disclosure is:

  1. requested by an outside marketing vendor for any use
  2. merely convenient for the insurer's internal staff
  3. with the individual's written authorization or as permitted ✓
  4. based on information older than one year in the file

Why: ARS 20-2113 prohibits disclosure unless it falls within an enumerated exception, such as the individual's written authorization — therefore option 2.

Errors and omissions (E&O) insurance protects a producer against:

  1. Flood damage to the agency building
  2. Property damage to the producer's car unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  3. Health expenses
  4. Liability arising from negligent acts, errors, or omissions in providing professional insurance services ✓

Why: E&O coverage responds to claims that the producer was professionally negligent, such as failing to obtain requested coverage, and is a key protection against the producer's professional liability exposure.

Under ARS 28-4009, an owner's policy may exclude a named person as an insured driver only if:

  1. The insurer unilaterally files a notice with the department
  2. The excluded driver signs a separate liability waiver form
  3. The person's license has been suspended by a court order
  4. There is a written agreement between the named insured and insurer ✓

Why: ARS 28-4009(A)(3): exclusion of a named driver requires a written agreement between the named insured and the insurer.

To be eligible for a standard Personal Auto Policy, a private passenger auto generally must be:

  1. Owned by a corporation
  2. Rated for over 10,000 pounds gross vehicle weight unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  3. Owned by an individual or spouses (or co-owned individuals) and not used for business delivery ✓
  4. Used primarily as a taxi or livery vehicle

Why: PAP eligibility generally requires the vehicle be owned by an individual or by a husband and wife (or resident individuals) and used for personal, not commercial livery, purposes.

Compared with a loss payable clause, a standard mortgage clause gives the mortgagee:

  1. No rights at all
  2. Independent rights, including payment even if the insured's own claim is denied for certain acts ✓
  3. Fewer rights
  4. Only salvage rights unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules

Why: A standard (union) mortgage clause grants the mortgagee independent rights, so it may still be paid even if the insured's claim is voided by certain acts.

An insurer wishing to comply with GLBA must provide its initial privacy notice to a customer:

  1. Only upon cancellation unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules
  2. Only after a claim
  3. At the time the customer relationship is established (and annually thereafter, as applicable) ✓
  4. Never

Why: GLBA requires delivery of a privacy notice when the customer relationship is established and, historically, an annual notice describing information-sharing practices.

An insured who leaves a car unlocked with keys inside because insurance will cover it demonstrates:

  1. A legal hazard
  2. A morale hazard ✓
  3. A physical hazard
  4. A moral hazard

Why: A morale hazard arises from carelessness or indifference to loss because insurance exists, increasing the likelihood of loss.

Under ARS 20-2106, a valid disclosure authorization form must, among other things, be:

  1. notarized by a licensed notary public
  2. co-signed by the appointed insurer
  3. written in plain language and dated ✓
  4. filed in advance with the director

Why: ARS 20-2106(1) and (2) require the authorization form to be written in plain language and dated — therefore option 2.

Under ARS 23-1044, the scheduled award for the loss of a major arm is:

  1. Fifty months
  2. Sixty months ✓
  3. Forty months
  4. Thirty months

Why: ARS 23-1044(B)(13): loss of a major arm is compensated for sixty months — therefore 60 months.

Professional Liability / Errors & Omissions (E&O) coverage responds to claims arising from:

  1. Negligent acts, errors, or omissions in rendering professional services ✓
  2. Fire damage to the office
  3. Auto accidents
  4. Premises slip-and-fall accidents unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force

Why: E&O covers financial harm to clients from a professional's negligent acts, errors, or omissions in delivering services.

The doctrine of reasonable expectations holds that coverage should be interpreted according to:

  1. What a reasonable insured would expect the coverage to provide ✓
  2. The strict technical wording most favorable to the insurer
  3. The producer's commission schedule
  4. The insurer's loss ratio

Why: Under reasonable expectations, ambiguous policy terms are interpreted to honor the coverage a reasonable insured would expect, especially given contracts of adhesion.

A personal auto insured pays the second installment 5 days late. Under ARS 20-1632.01, the insurer must:

  1. Cancel the policy effective the premium due date
  2. Charge a ten percent penalty and then cancel it
  3. Immediately nonrenew the policy at its very next renewal term
  4. Treat the policy as in force under the 7-day grace period ✓

Why: ARS 20-1632.01(A) guarantees at least a seven-day grace period for premiums other than the first, so a payment 5 days late keeps the policy in full force.

Under ARS 20-1120, the binder rules do NOT apply to which lines?

  1. Personal automobile insurance
  2. Commercial property insurance
  3. Life and disability insurance ✓
  4. Homeowners insurance

Why: ARS 20-1120(D) states the section does not apply to life or disability insurances.

Under ARS 20-106, which act constitutes 'transacting' insurance?

  1. Storing blank policy forms in a records warehouse
  2. Auditing an insurer's year-end financial statement
  3. Solicitation and inducement of an insurance contract ✓
  4. Printing rate manuals purely for archival purposes

Why: ARS 20-106(A)(1) lists solicitation and inducement among the acts that constitute transacting insurance — therefore option 2.

Under ARS 20-1653, all notices of cancellation or nonrenewal of a covered personal-lines policy must:

  1. In writing, sent to the named insured, and stating the facts ✓
  2. Personally hand-delivered by the servicing insurance producer
  3. Published in a newspaper of general circulation
  4. Approved in advance by the director of insurance

Why: ARS 20-1653 requires all cancellation or nonrenewal notices to be in writing, sent to the named insured and to state the specific facts constituting the grounds relied on.