Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Georgia licenses Property & Casualty producers through Pearson VUE, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Georgia law - auto (including Georgia's add-on UM/UIM), property and homeowners, and workers' compensation.
You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Official Code of Georgia Annotated (O.C.G.A.) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1006 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
The difference between an umbrella policy and a simple excess liability policy is that an umbrella:
Why: Excess liability merely adds limits over an underlying policy following its terms; an umbrella both adds limits and can broaden coverage beyond the underlying policies.
Suitability in insurance sales means a producer should:
Why: Suitability requires that recommendations fit the client's actual needs, financial situation, and objectives rather than the producer's compensation.
A scheduled personal property floater typically provides coverage that is:
Why: Floaters offer broad, frequently worldwide, all-risk coverage for scheduled valuables and commonly apply no deductible.
Under §33-36-3(4)(G), a first-party claim is excluded from Insolvency Pool coverage if the insured's net worth exceeds:
Why: §33-36-3(4)(G) excludes a first-party claim by an insured whose net worth exceeds $10 million on the relevant December 31.
A key feature of Coverage C — Medical Payments under the CGL is that it pays:
Why: Medical Payments coverage is a goodwill, no-fault coverage paying medical expenses regardless of the insured's legal liability, within the medical expense limit.
The Ordinance or Law endorsement provides coverage for:
Why: Ordinance or Law covers loss to the undamaged portion, demolition costs, and increased construction costs required to comply with current building codes after a covered loss.
Under Georgia law, a person who sells, solicits, or negotiates insurance in this state for any class of insurance must:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-4(a)(1) provides that a person shall not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance in this state for any class unless licensed for that line of authority in accordance with the article and applicable regulations.
'Perils of the sea' in ocean marine refers to:
Why: Perils of the sea are extraordinary, fortuitous events peculiar to the sea, like storms, stranding, collision, and sinking—not the ordinary action of wind and waves.
Under O.C.G.A. §40-6-10(a)(1.2), how must proof of the required minimum insurance coverage be handled during operation of the vehicle?
Why: O.C.G.A. §40-6-10(a)(1.2) requires the owner/operator to keep proof or evidence of required minimum coverage in the vehicle at all times during operation, in either paper or electronic format (e.g., a display on a mobile device).
For a limited subagent application, the Commissioner requires a certificate from the sponsoring agent. That certificate must address all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-8(c) requires the sponsoring agent's certificate to address character (including criminal background), identity, residence, experience, instruction as to kinds of insurance, and the sponsor's satisfaction that the applicant is trustworthy and qualified; it does not require a premium-production target.
An insured with 50/100/25 split limits injures one person for $80,000. How much does the policy pay for that injured person?
Why: The per-person bodily injury limit is $50,000, so the most payable for one injured person is $50,000 regardless of the per-accident limit.
Which of the following risks would be considered an ideally insurable risk?
Why: A sudden, accidental fire is fortuitous, definite, measurable, and not catastrophic to the insurer, meeting the criteria for an insurable risk.
A maintenance bond is best described as a surety bond that:
Why: A maintenance bond guarantees that completed work will be free from defects in workmanship/materials for a specified time.
Which of the following is one of the four required elements of a legally enforceable contract?
Why: The required elements of a contract are offer and acceptance, consideration, competent parties, and legal purpose.
A homeowner applies for NFIP flood coverage on June 1 because heavy rains are forecast. A flood damages the home on June 10. The claim will most likely be:
Why: Because the standard 30-day NFIP waiting period had not yet passed, the policy was not in effect at the time of loss and the claim would be denied.
The National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) is administered by which federal agency?
Why: The NFIP is administered by FEMA, an agency within the Department of Homeland Security.
Personal property losses under most Homeowners forms are settled on what basis unless replacement cost is endorsed?
Why: Coverage C personal property is settled on an actual cash value basis (replacement cost minus depreciation) unless replacement cost coverage is added by endorsement.
After a covered fire, a city orders demolition of the undamaged portion of an older building to meet current code. Which coverage pays for the demolition and increased rebuilding cost?
Why: Ordinance or Law coverage pays for loss to the undamaged portion, demolition costs, and increased cost of construction to comply with current codes.
A civilian working for a U.S. defense contractor on a military base overseas is injured. Which act most likely provides workers' compensation coverage?
Why: The Defense Base Act extends LHWCA-style workers' compensation benefits to civilian employees of U.S. government contractors working on overseas military bases and similar locations.
Article 1 of Chapter 6 of Title 33 dealing with claims handling may be cited as the:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-30 provides that the article shall be known and may be cited as the 'Unfair Claims Settlement Practices Act.'
How does the BOP commonly differ from a Commercial Package Policy for property valuation?
Why: A BOP typically provides replacement cost valuation and includes business income/extra expense automatically (often without a separate dollar limit), unlike a CPP which adds these separately.
Under the PPD schedule of O.C.G.A. §34-9-263, the weekly income benefit rate is:
Why: O.C.G.A. §34-9-263(c) pays two-thirds of the employee's average weekly wage, subject to the maximum and minimum limits in §34-9-261, for the scheduled number of weeks.
The maximum NFIP building coverage limit available for a single-family residential structure under the regular program is:
Why: The NFIP caps building coverage for a single-family dwelling at $250,000, with a separate $100,000 limit available for contents.
Under O.C.G.A. §33-24-45(f), the nonrenewal-notice protections of subsection (e) do NOT apply in which situation?
Why: O.C.G.A. §33-24-45(f) exempts from subsection (e) cases of nonpayment of premium for the expiring policy, failure to pay the renewal premium, the insurer's manifested willingness to renew, and certain noticed reductions in coverage.
Under the GLBA privacy rule, an insurer that intends to share a customer's nonpublic personal financial information with a nonaffiliated third party generally must first:
Why: GLBA requires insurers to deliver a privacy notice and, before sharing nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties, give the consumer a chance to opt out.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements required to prove a negligent act?
Why: Negligence requires duty, breach, proximate cause, and damages. Intent is not required—an intentional act is a different category (an intentional tort).
In a competitive state fund jurisdiction, the state fund:
Why: A competitive state fund operates alongside private insurers; employers may buy WC from the state fund or from private carriers.
A producer who exceeds the actual authority granted by the insurer but acts within the authority the public reasonably believes the producer has may still bind the insurer because of:
Why: Apparent authority can bind the insurer when a third party reasonably relies on the appearance of authority the insurer permitted to exist.
A tenant rents space and is contractually responsible for fire damage to the landlord's building. The best coverage is:
Why: Legal Liability Coverage protects a tenant against liability for fire (or other covered peril) damage to property of others in their care, such as a leased building.
A Georgia auto policy contains a named-driver exclusion validly signed by the named insured excluding a specific household member from coverage. When that excluded driver operates the covered vehicle and causes an accident, the general effect is that:
Why: Georgia permits a named-driver exclusion by written agreement (O.C.G.A. §33-24-41.1); the effect is that liability coverage does not extend to accidents arising from the specifically excluded driver's operation of the insured vehicle.