Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand. The general section is the bulk of every state exam; most states require about 70% to pass.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
It covers the national, general-knowledge portion shared by every U.S. state's Property & Casualty producer exam - property, casualty, auto, homeowners, commercial lines, workers' compensation and federal regulation. It is the bulk of the exam and is ideal before you add your state's law section.
It covers the national portion, not your state's insurance-law section. Every state P&C exam also has a state-specific part. As we add dedicated state P&C exams, use yours for full coverage; until then this gives you a strong head start on the majority of the material.
Most states require about 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question is original, written to the standard national P&C content outline and the standard ISO policy forms, with a plain-English explanation.
The full general P&C bank contains 708 questions across all the core property and casualty topics, with written explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access - and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 8 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: P&C — General Insurance Concepts, P&C — Insurance Basics, P&C — Dwelling & Homeowners, P&C — Personal & Commercial Auto, P&C — Commercial Property, BOP & Marine, P&C — Commercial General Liability & Specialty, P&C — Workers' Compensation and P&C — Other Lines, Flood & Federal Regulation. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 23 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Which marine coverage would insure a bank's exposure for valuable customer securities documents lost in a fire on premises?
Why: The Valuable Papers and Records inland marine floater covers the cost to reconstruct or replace important documents and records destroyed by a covered peril.
A medical professional wants protection against patient claims of negligent treatment. The correct policy is:
Why: Patient injury from professional treatment is excluded by the CGL and covered by medical professional liability (malpractice) insurance.
An insured damages a friend's mailbox and fence while backing out of a driveway in the covered auto. This is covered under:
Why: Damage to another person's property (mailbox, fence) for which the insured is legally liable is covered under Part A property damage liability.
Under the Building and Personal Property Coverage Form, which coverage applies to the building structure and permanently installed fixtures?
Why: Coverage A (Building) covers the described building, completed additions, fixtures, permanently installed machinery, and equipment.
A machine made by a third party injures an employee. The employee collects WC, then sues the machine maker, who in turn sues the employer claiming the employer's negligence contributed. What is this type of claim that Part Two can cover?
Why: A third-party-over (or action-over) suit occurs when a third party sued by the employee brings the employer in for contribution; Part Two Employers Liability can respond to this.
A Homeowners insured suffers theft of firearms. The special Coverage C limit for theft of firearms is commonly:
Why: Theft of firearms is subject to a special sublimit (commonly $2,500) under Coverage C; collections worth more should be scheduled.
With auto liability split limits of 50/100/25, the maximum paid for bodily injury to any one person in an accident is:
Why: The first number (50) is the per-person bodily injury limit: $50,000.
A spouse of an injured worker sues the employer for loss of the worker's companionship and services resulting from the work injury. This is an example of which type of claim Part Two may cover?
Why: Part Two can cover consequential bodily injury and care/loss of services (loss of consortium) suits brought by family members related to the employee's work injury.
The maximum NFIP building coverage limit available for a single-family residential structure under the regular program is:
Why: The NFIP caps building coverage for a single-family dwelling at $250,000, with a separate $100,000 limit available for contents.
Under the FCRA, a consumer who is the subject of an adverse action based on a consumer report has the right to:
Why: The FCRA gives consumers the right to a free copy of the report that led to an adverse action and the right to dispute inaccurate or incomplete information.
Theft of property is covered automatically under which Causes of Loss form?
Why: Theft is not a named peril under Basic or Broad, but the open-perils Special form covers theft (subject to special limits) since it is not excluded.
In a competitive state fund jurisdiction, the state fund:
Why: A competitive state fund operates alongside private insurers; employers may buy WC from the state fund or from private carriers.
An employer with a poor loss history cannot find a private insurer willing to write its workers' compensation voluntarily. Where would this employer most likely obtain coverage?
Why: Employers unable to obtain WC in the voluntary market are placed in the assigned-risk or residual market plan, which guarantees availability of mandatory coverage.
Which best describes the difference between replacement cost and actual cash value?
Why: Actual cash value equals replacement cost minus depreciation, so it pays less than replacement cost on older property.
Defense costs under the standard CGL are:
Why: Under the standard CGL, defense costs are paid in addition to the limits as part of Supplementary Payments (unlike many specialty 'defense-within-limits' policies).
Under 'contribution by equal shares,' insurers covering the same loss pay:
Why: Each insurer contributes equal amounts until the smallest applicable limit is used up; remaining insurers continue contributing equally.
An insured has two policies covering the same building: Policy A with $100,000 and Policy B with $300,000. Under pro rata, a $40,000 loss is shared so Policy A pays:
Why: Policy A's share = ($100,000 ÷ $400,000) × $40,000 = $10,000.
A producer who exceeds the actual authority granted by the insurer but acts within the authority the public reasonably believes the producer has may still bind the insurer because of:
Why: Apparent authority can bind the insurer when a third party reasonably relies on the appearance of authority the insurer permitted to exist.
The characteristic of an insurance contract under which the dollar amounts exchanged by the parties may be unequal is called:
Why: An aleatory contract involves an exchange of unequal amounts; the insured pays a small premium and may collect a large benefit, or nothing at all.
In a Homeowners policy, Coverage D (Loss of Use) provides which of the following?
Why: Coverage D — Loss of Use pays additional living expenses while the home is uninhabitable and any lost fair rental value if part of the home was rented.
For Part Three (Other States Insurance) to respond, a state generally must be:
Why: Other States Insurance applies to states named in the Part Three item of the Information Page (often 'all states except' those that are monopolistic or already listed in Part One).
Unlike Part One, Part Two (Employers Liability) of the policy does include limits of liability. The three Part Two limits typically apply to:
Why: Part Two shows three limits: bodily injury by accident (each accident), bodily injury by disease (policy limit), and bodily injury by disease (each employee).
A farmer wants protection against widespread yield loss from drought across an entire growing season. The most appropriate coverage is:
Why: MPCI covers broad yield losses from many natural perils, including drought, making it the appropriate choice over narrow crop-hail coverage.
Which is NOT one of the three parties to a surety bond?
Why: The three parties to a surety bond are the principal, the obligee, and the surety; a reinsurer is not a bond party.
How does the BOP commonly differ from a Commercial Package Policy for property valuation?
Why: A BOP typically provides replacement cost valuation and includes business income/extra expense automatically (often without a separate dollar limit), unlike a CPP which adds these separately.
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) requires financial institutions, including insurers, to:
Why: GLBA's privacy provisions require notice of information-sharing practices and, in many cases, allow consumers to opt out of having their nonpublic personal financial information shared with nonaffiliated third parties.
Federal Multiple Peril Crop Insurance (MPCI) is overseen by which federal entity?
Why: MPCI is administered through the USDA's Risk Management Agency, which works with the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation and private insurers.
Personal Injury Protection (PIP), where applicable, typically covers:
Why: PIP, common in no-fault states, pays the insured's own medical, wage loss, and related economic benefits without regard to fault.
A bond that guarantees the contractor will complete the project according to the contract terms is a:
Why: A performance bond guarantees completion of the work per the contract specifications.
An insurance policy is a unilateral contract because:
Why: In a unilateral contract, only one party, the insurer, makes a legally enforceable promise; the insured is not legally obligated to pay future premiums.
The premium basis for workers' compensation insurance is generally expressed as a rate applied to:
Why: WC premium is calculated using rates per $100 of payroll for each job classification, then adjusted by other factors.
Which dwelling form would be most appropriate for the broadest property protection on an owner-occupied home?
Why: DP-3 provides open-perils coverage on the dwelling and is the broadest of the standard dwelling forms for the structure.
Which federal law would a producer most likely consult to determine whether a previously convicted individual may lawfully work in the insurance business?
Why: 18 U.S.C. 1033 and 1034 govern whether persons convicted of crimes involving dishonesty may engage in the business of insurance and the penalties for violations.
A Farm Coverage Form generally combines:
Why: The Farm Coverage Form can combine coverage for the farm dwelling, household personal property, farm personal property (including livestock and machinery), and farm buildings/structures.
A loss resulting from physical damage that occurs immediately from the action of a peril is a:
Why: A direct loss is the immediate physical damage to property caused by a covered peril.
The primary method of handling risk that insurance represents is:
Why: Insurance is fundamentally a transfer of the financial consequences of risk from the insured to the insurer.
'Completed operations' coverage applies when:
Why: Completed operations responds after the work is finished, typically for injury/damage occurring away from owned/rented premises.
A neighbor is injured by the insured's dog and incurs medical bills. Even though no lawsuit is filed and fault is unclear, payment may be available under:
Why: Coverage F pays reasonable medical expenses for injured third parties on a no-fault, goodwill basis without requiring a finding of legal liability.
In a surety bond, the party who is required to provide the bond and perform the obligation is the:
Why: The principal is the party who must perform the obligation and is required to furnish the bond.
A manufacturer wants to avoid any coinsurance penalty at the time of loss and is willing to agree on the property's value in advance. The best option is:
Why: The Agreed Value option suspends the coinsurance condition based on a value agreed upon by insurer and insured, avoiding any coinsurance penalty.
The right of an insurer, after paying a claim, to recover from the party who caused the loss is:
Why: Subrogation transfers the insured's right of recovery against a responsible third party to the insurer after it pays the claim.
Which Homeowners form is the Broad Form, covering the dwelling on a named-perils (broad) basis?
Why: HO-2 is the Broad Form, insuring the dwelling and personal property on a named-perils (broad form) basis.
A producer who recommends a product the client does not need solely to earn a larger commission has most clearly breached the duty of:
Why: Recommending unsuitable products for the producer's own gain violates the ethical duties of suitability and fair dealing owed to the client.
A risk retention group is an insurer formed to provide liability coverage for:
Why: A risk retention group is a liability insurer owned by members with similar or related liability exposures who share that risk.
Under the CGL, the duty to defend ends when:
Why: The insurer's duty to defend ceases once the applicable limit is used up by judgments or settlements.
Workers' compensation wage-replacement (indemnity) benefits typically pay the worker:
Why: Indemnity benefits usually replace a percentage (often around two-thirds) of the worker's average weekly wage, are generally tax-free, and are subject to statutory minimums and maximums.
In an insurance contract, the consideration given by the insured is:
Why: The insured's consideration is the premium plus the representations made in the application; the insurer's consideration is its promise to pay covered losses.
The Motor Carrier Act and related federal regulations require interstate motor carriers to maintain:
Why: Federal law sets minimum public liability limits for interstate carriers, which vary by the type and hazard of cargo transported (e.g., higher for hazardous materials).
A commercial umbrella policy provides which three basic functions?
Why: Umbrellas provide excess limits over underlying policies, broader coverage that drops down for certain gaps, and coverage for losses not covered by underlying subject to a self-insured retention.
A spectator hit by a foul ball at a baseball game may be barred from recovery under which defense?
Why: Assumption of risk applies when a person knowingly and voluntarily exposes themselves to a known danger, such as inherent risks at a sporting event.
Under the PAP, an insured loses control on ice and slides into a tree. This loss is covered under:
Why: Striking a tree as the result of losing control is a collision loss, since collision includes upset or impact with an object.
Which Part of the Workers Compensation and Employers Liability Policy pays the benefits required by the workers' compensation law of a listed state, with no dollar limit on the amount paid?
Why: Part One pays promptly all benefits required by the workers' compensation law of the states listed; because the law sets the benefits, there is no policy limit on Part One.
Personal property losses under most Homeowners forms are settled on what basis unless replacement cost is endorsed?
Why: Coverage C personal property is settled on an actual cash value basis (replacement cost minus depreciation) unless replacement cost coverage is added by endorsement.
PAP Part E — Duties After an Accident or Loss requires the insured to:
Why: Part E requires prompt notice of the accident, cooperation, providing proof of loss, and allowing inspection, among other duties.
Most workers' compensation laws impose a 'waiting period' before income (indemnity) benefits begin. The purpose is to:
Why: The waiting period (commonly a few days) means no wage-loss benefits are paid for minor, brief absences; medical benefits, however, usually begin immediately.
Compensatory damages are intended to:
Why: Compensatory damages reimburse the claimant for actual losses suffered, restoring them to their pre-loss condition.
The CGL's coverage for 'damage to premises rented to you' generally does NOT apply to:
Why: This coverage applies to rented premises, not to property the insured owns, which would need property insurance.
Injuries to civilian federal government employees (such as a postal or federal agency worker) are covered under:
Why: FECA provides workers' compensation benefits to civilian employees of the federal government for job-related injuries and illnesses.
Authority that is explicitly granted to a producer in the written agency contract is called:
Why: Express authority is the authority specifically granted to the agent in writing through the agency agreement.
Intentional injury caused by an insured is treated under Section II how?
Why: Bodily injury or property damage expected or intended by the insured is excluded under Section II liability coverage.
For a property owner to be eligible to purchase NFIP flood insurance, the property must be located in:
Why: NFIP coverage is only available in communities that have agreed to adopt and enforce floodplain management ordinances and thus participate in the program.
Insurable interest in property insurance requires that the insured:
Why: Insurable interest exists when a person would suffer a genuine financial loss from damage to or destruction of the property.
PAP Part B — Medical Payments covers:
Why: Medical Payments covers reasonable and necessary medical and funeral expenses for an insured injured in an auto accident, paid without regard to fault.
Medical Payments coverage typically pays expenses incurred within what time frame after the accident?
Why: PAP Part B generally pays covered medical and funeral expenses incurred within three years of the date of the accident.
Shareholders sue a corporation's board alleging mismanagement caused a stock drop. Which policy responds?
Why: Claims against directors and officers for wrongful management acts are handled by D&O liability insurance.
Employment Practices Liability Insurance (EPLI) covers claims such as:
Why: EPLI responds to employment-related claims like discrimination, harassment, wrongful termination, and retaliation.
A primary reason an organization purchases an umbrella in addition to its CGL, auto, and employers liability is to:
Why: Umbrellas provide a consolidated high limit of catastrophic excess protection over multiple underlying liability policies.
Because the standard policy's Part One does not apply in monopolistic fund states (where coverage comes from the state fund), what does the policy still commonly provide for those states via endorsement?
Why: In monopolistic states, the state fund provides statutory benefits but not employers liability; a stop gap (Employers Liability) endorsement fills that gap.
A policy designated as 'excess' over other coverage will:
Why: Excess coverage applies only after the underlying (primary) insurance limits have been used up.
An 'impairment rating' in workers' compensation is used primarily to:
Why: An impairment rating, often expressed as a percentage, measures the extent of permanent physical impairment and is used to determine permanent disability benefits.
Pet insurance is generally classified as a form of:
Why: Pet insurance reimburses veterinary expenses for illness or injury and is offered as a specialty personal-lines product.
A Businessowners Policy (BOP) is best described as:
Why: A BOP is a prepackaged policy combining property and liability coverage designed for eligible small and medium-sized businesses.
When an employer is held responsible for the negligent acts of an employee committed within the scope of employment, this is:
Why: Vicarious liability holds one party (e.g., an employer) responsible for the actions of another (e.g., an employee acting within the scope of employment).
Supplementary payments in a liability policy typically include:
Why: Supplementary (additional) payments cover items like defense costs, certain bonds, and the insured's expenses incurred assisting the defense, often beyond the limit.
An insured increases jewelry coverage by scheduling items. Scheduled items differ from blanket Coverage C because they:
Why: Scheduled personal property is individually listed and valued, generally insured on a broader open-peril basis, often with no deductible and above Coverage C sublimits.
Self-insurance is best defined as:
Why: Self-insurance is a risk-retention technique in which an organization budgets and funds its own losses internally instead of transferring the risk to an insurer.
Which statement about how coverage parts combine in a CPP is correct?
Why: In a package, two or more coverage parts attach to common declarations and common conditions; a single coverage part written alone is monoline.
The Business Pursuits endorsement on a Homeowners policy is used to:
Why: The business pursuits endorsement extends Section II liability to certain employee business activities that would otherwise be excluded; it does not cover an owned business.
Under the BPP, money stolen from a register is not covered. The correct coverage to address this exposure is:
Why: Money and securities are excluded under property forms; theft of money is properly insured under a commercial crime policy.
In a life insurance contract (by contrast with property), insurable interest must exist:
Why: Life insurance requires insurable interest only at policy inception, whereas property/casualty requires it at the time of loss.