Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately so you know exactly where you stand. The general section is the bulk of every state exam; most states require about 70% to pass.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
It covers the national, general-knowledge portion shared by every U.S. state's Property & Casualty producer exam - property, casualty, auto, homeowners, commercial lines, workers' compensation and federal regulation. It is the bulk of the exam and is ideal before you add your state's law section.
It covers the national portion, not your state's insurance-law section. Every state P&C exam also has a state-specific part. As we add dedicated state P&C exams, use yours for full coverage; until then this gives you a strong head start on the majority of the material.
Most states require about 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question is original, written to the standard national P&C content outline and the standard ISO policy forms, with a plain-English explanation.
The full general P&C bank contains 708 questions across all the core property and casualty topics, with written explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access - and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Under the FCRA, before an insurer obtains an investigative consumer report on an applicant, it must:
Why: The FCRA requires advance written disclosure to the consumer that an investigative consumer report may be requested, along with a description of the consumer's rights.
Actual cash value is generally calculated as:
Why: ACV is typically replacement cost less depreciation, reflecting the property's depreciated value at the time of loss.
A heating contractor ships and installs a new furnace; the equipment is stolen from the job site before acceptance. Best coverage:
Why: An Installation floater covers materials and equipment during transit, storage, and installation until the work is accepted by the owner.
An insurer knowingly accepts a late premium payment without objection on several occasions, then later tries to deny a claim because a payment was late. The insurer is most likely prevented from doing so by:
Why: By repeatedly accepting late payments (waiver), the insurer may be estopped from later denying coverage based on the very right it gave up.
Builders Risk coverage is designed to insure:
Why: Builders Risk insures buildings or structures while under construction, including materials and supplies intended to become part of the structure.
A combined single limit (CSL) of $300,000 means:
Why: A combined single limit provides one shared limit for both bodily injury and property damage arising from a single occurrence.
The Miscellaneous Type Vehicle endorsement to the PAP can extend coverage to:
Why: The Miscellaneous Type Vehicle endorsement provides PAP coverage for vehicles such as motorcycles, motor homes, dune buggies, golf carts, and ATVs.
In a Homeowners policy, damage by a vehicle to the dwelling is:
Why: Damage caused by vehicles is a named peril; however, there are limitations for vehicles owned or operated by a resident and for damage to certain property like driveways.
An insured has $1M/$2M CGL underlying and a $5M umbrella. A covered liability judgment is $4M for a single occurrence. After the CGL pays its $1M occurrence limit, the umbrella pays:
Why: The CGL pays its $1M occurrence limit; the umbrella pays the remaining $3M excess over the underlying.
Shareholders sue a corporation's board alleging mismanagement caused a stock drop. Which policy responds?
Why: Claims against directors and officers for wrongful management acts are handled by D&O liability insurance.
A homeowner is sued because a visitor slipped on an icy walkway and was injured. The cost of the insurer defending this suit is:
Why: Defense costs under Section II are generally provided in addition to the Coverage E limit of liability and continue until the limit is exhausted by settlement or judgment.
A PAP liability limit shown as 100/300/50 means:
Why: Split limits 100/300/50 mean $100,000 bodily injury per person, $300,000 bodily injury per accident, and $50,000 property damage per accident.
An insured intentionally damages a third party's property. Under a standard liability policy, this loss is most likely:
Why: Liability coverage applies to occurrences (accidents); intentional acts are typically excluded because they are not accidental.
When an insurer's actions lead an insured to believe a right exists, and the insurer is later prevented from denying that the right exists, the legal principle is:
Why: Estoppel prevents a party from asserting a right or fact inconsistent with a previous position when another party has relied on that position.
A non-admitted (unauthorized) insurer is one that:
Why: A non-admitted insurer lacks a certificate of authority in that state, though it may write surplus lines business through licensed surplus lines brokers.
In insurance terms, risk is best defined as:
Why: Risk is the uncertainty about whether a loss will happen. Without uncertainty there is no insurable risk.
Which dwelling form would be most appropriate for the broadest property protection on an owner-occupied home?
Why: DP-3 provides open-perils coverage on the dwelling and is the broadest of the standard dwelling forms for the structure.
The Automatic Increase in Insurance (inflation guard) endorsement on a dwelling policy does what?
Why: The inflation guard / automatic increase endorsement raises the dwelling limit at set intervals to help the amount of insurance keep up with rising construction costs.
The CAN-SPAM Act primarily regulates:
Why: CAN-SPAM sets rules for commercial email, including truthful subject lines and sender information, a functioning opt-out, and inclusion of a valid postal address.
A Contractors Equipment floater typically covers:
Why: The Contractors Equipment floater is an inland marine form covering mobile tools, machinery, and equipment a contractor uses at various job sites.
In a surety bond, the party who is required to provide the bond and perform the obligation is the:
Why: The principal is the party who must perform the obligation and is required to furnish the bond.
Unlike Part One, Part Two (Employers Liability) of the policy does include limits of liability. The three Part Two limits typically apply to:
Why: Part Two shows three limits: bodily injury by accident (each accident), bodily injury by disease (policy limit), and bodily injury by disease (each employee).
A Homeowners insured suffers theft of firearms. The special Coverage C limit for theft of firearms is commonly:
Why: Theft of firearms is subject to a special sublimit (commonly $2,500) under Coverage C; collections worth more should be scheduled.
Suitability in insurance sales means a producer should:
Why: Suitability requires that recommendations fit the client's actual needs, financial situation, and objectives rather than the producer's compensation.
Which Part of the Workers Compensation and Employers Liability Policy pays the benefits required by the workers' compensation law of a listed state, with no dollar limit on the amount paid?
Why: Part One pays promptly all benefits required by the workers' compensation law of the states listed; because the law sets the benefits, there is no policy limit on Part One.
A home has a replacement cost of $300,000 but a market value of $230,000. For insurance-to-value purposes, the amount of insurance should be based on:
Why: Insurance to value is based on the cost to rebuild (replacement cost), not market value, which includes land and location factors.
A client asks for flood coverage; the producer forgets to bind it, and a flood later destroys the home. This situation most directly creates exposure under:
Why: Failing to obtain requested coverage is a classic errors and omissions claim against the producer.
The maximum NFIP contents coverage available to a residential policyholder is:
Why: Residential contents coverage under the NFIP is capped at $100,000, separate from the building limit.
When an insurer transfers part of its risk on a policy to another insurer, this practice is called:
Why: Reinsurance is the transfer of risk from the original ceding insurer to a reinsurer, allowing the insurer to spread large or numerous risks.
Personal property losses under most Homeowners forms are settled on what basis unless replacement cost is endorsed?
Why: Coverage C personal property is settled on an actual cash value basis (replacement cost minus depreciation) unless replacement cost coverage is added by endorsement.