Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Georgia administers its Life, Accident & Sickness licensing exams through Pearson VUE. The combined Life, Accident & Sickness exam has 125 scored questions and runs 150 minutes; the separate Life and Accident & Sickness exams have 80 scored questions each (plus 20 pretest) and run 120 minutes. Each exam has a national section and a Georgia state-law section, and you need 70% on each section to pass. This bank covers both the general insurance material and the Georgia law for both lines.
You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Georgia Insurance Code (O.C.G.A. Title 33) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1023 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Nonoccupational disability coverage pays benefits for disabilities that occur:
Why: Nonoccupational coverage excludes on-the-job injuries (covered by workers' compensation); occupational/24-hour coverage applies both on and off the job.
'Controlled business' refers to insurance a producer writes:
Why: Controlled business is coverage on the producer's own interests; states limit it so licenses aren't obtained merely to self-deal.
Under the uniform individual health provisions, the grace period for a policy with monthly premiums is:
Why: Health grace periods are 7 days for weekly premium, 10 days for monthly, and 31 days for all other modes.
A holder of a temporary license issued under Code Section 33-23-13(a) is authorized to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-13(d) authorizes negotiation of renewals, receipt and collection of premiums, and acts necessary to continuance, but expressly does NOT authorize the holder to sell, solicit, or negotiate new insurance accounts.
A Medicare SELECT policy is a type of Medigap that:
Why: Medicare SELECT is a Medigap policy that requires using network providers (except emergencies) in return for a lower premium.
A bank tells a borrower the loan will be approved only if they buy the lender's insurance. This unfair practice is:
Why: Using economic force — conditioning a loan on buying particular insurance — is coercion.
A 'per stirpes' beneficiary designation means that, if a beneficiary dies before the insured, that beneficiary's share:
Why: Per stirpes sends a deceased beneficiary's share down to that person's descendants; per capita splits only among surviving named beneficiaries.
A primary tax advantage of a deferred annuity during accumulation is that earnings:
Why: Annuity earnings accumulate tax-deferred; taxes apply only when distributions are taken.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-23-9, when the Commissioner has designated textbooks, manuals, or other materials for a license classification, all examination questions shall be:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-9 provides that when textbooks, manuals, or other materials are designated or prepared at the Commissioner's direction, all examination questions shall be prepared from the contents of those materials.
Which permanent policy features flexible premiums and an adjustable death benefit?
Why: Universal life allows the owner to vary premium payments and adjust the death benefit (subject to underwriting); cash value earns a declared interest rate.
A $1,000 covered expense is submitted to two health plans. The primary plan pays $800. Under coordination of benefits, the secondary plan typically pays:
Why: COB limits total payment to 100% of the expense; the secondary plan pays the remaining $200, not a duplicate benefit.
After receiving a notice of appointment, the Commissioner must verify the agent's eligibility for appointment within a reasonable time not to exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-16(g)(1)(B) requires the Commissioner to verify eligibility within a reasonable time, not to exceed 30 days, and to notify the insurer within five days if the agent is ineligible.
Under a Section 162 executive bonus plan, the employer pays the premium as a bonus. The employer:
Why: The employer deducts the bonus as compensation; the employee owns the policy and includes the bonus in taxable income.
Premiums a business pays for key person life insurance are:
Why: Key person premiums are not deductible (the business is the beneficiary), but the death benefit is generally received income-tax-free.
A disability buy-sell policy's benefits are used to:
Why: Disability buy-sell provides funds for remaining owners to buy out an owner who becomes totally disabled, separate from income replacement or overhead coverage.
A producer offers to give a prospect part of the first-year commission if they buy the policy. This is:
Why: Offering an inducement not stated in the policy (such as sharing commission) to persuade a purchase is rebating, illegal in most states.
The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) primarily:
Why: The NAIC is a coordinating body of state regulators that drafts model laws and promotes uniformity; it has no direct regulatory authority of its own.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-23-35, a willful violation involving premium funds is generally a misdemeanor, but it rises to a felony when the amounts involved exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-35(c) states that a willful violation constitutes a misdemeanor unless the amounts involved exceed $1,000.00, in which case the violation constitutes a felony.
A '20-pay whole life' policy:
Why: Limited-pay whole life concentrates premiums into a set period (here 20 years) while coverage lasts for life.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-43-7, every issuer of Medicare supplement insurance in Georgia must, before use, provide a copy of any Medicare supplement advertisement to the Commissioner for:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-43-7 requires every issuer of Medicare supplement insurance to provide a copy of any Medicare supplement advertisement intended for use in this state to the Commissioner for review and approval.
A Medicare Part A benefit period begins when a patient is admitted and ends:
Why: A benefit period starts at admission and ends after the patient has been out of a hospital/SNF for 60 consecutive days; a new period (and deductible) can then begin.
Under a conditional receipt given with a life application and the initial premium, coverage takes effect:
Why: A conditional receipt provides coverage retroactive to the application/exam date if the applicant proves insurable, provided premium accompanied the application.
State guaranty association protection may NOT be:
Why: Using guaranty fund protection to induce a sale is prohibited; the fund exists to protect policyholders of insolvent insurers, within limits.
Before a proposed rule or regulation of the Georgia Commissioner of Insurance may become effective, for how long must it have been on file as a public record in the Commissioner's office?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-2-9(b) provides that a proposed rule, regulation, amendment, or repeal must be on file as a public record in the Commissioner's office for at least ten days before becoming effective.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6, the board of directors of the Georgia guaranty association shall consist of how many member insurers?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6(a) provides that the board of directors of the association shall consist of not less than seven nor more than 11 member insurers, selected by the Commissioner from a list provided by the board.
A long-term care policy has a 90-day elimination period. Benefits begin:
Why: The elimination period is a deductible in days; the insured covers care during it, and benefits start afterward.
Renewable term insurance lets the owner renew at the end of each term:
Why: Renewability guarantees renewal without proving insurability, though the premium rises with age.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6, members of the guaranty association board of directors may be compensated in what manner for their service?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6(c) provides that board members may be reimbursed from association assets for reasonable expenses incurred in their capacity as board members but shall not otherwise be compensated by the association for their services.
When a child is covered under both parents' health plans, the primary plan is usually determined by the:
Why: The birthday rule makes primary the plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year.
An insured returns to work, then becomes disabled again from the same cause five months later. Under a recurrent disability provision (six-month period), the insured:
Why: A recurrence from the same cause within the stated period is treated as a continuation, so no new elimination period applies.