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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Georgia exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
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Georgia administers its Life, Accident & Sickness licensing exams through Pearson VUE. The combined Life, Accident & Sickness exam has 125 scored questions and runs 150 minutes; the separate Life and Accident & Sickness exams have 80 scored questions each (plus 20 pretest) and run 120 minutes. Each exam has a national section and a Georgia state-law section, and you need 70% on each section to pass. This bank covers both the general insurance material and the Georgia law for both lines.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Georgia Insurance Code (O.C.G.A. Title 33) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Georgia bank contains 1023 questions (general insurance plus Georgia law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
It is organised into 13 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Life: Types of Policies, Life: Provisions, Riders & Options, Life: Underwriting, Premium & Taxation, Annuities & Retirement, Health: Plans, Provisions & Disability, Health: Medicare, Social Insurance & LTC, General Regulation & Ethics, Georgia — Producer Licensing, Appointment & CE, Georgia — Unfair Trade Practices & Claims, Georgia — Life Insurance & Annuity, Georgia — Accident & Health, Georgia — HMO & Managed Care and Georgia — Regulation, Privacy & Guaranty. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 23 September 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Under § 33-6-35(b), the hearing, cease and desist, penalty, judicial review, and intervenor provisions applicable to violations of the Unfair Claims Settlement Practices article are which of the following?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-35(b) provides that the provisions of Code Sections 33-6-7 through 33-6-11 governing Article 1 violations apply to violations of the Unfair Claims Settlement Practices article.
An Explanation of Benefits (EOB) sent to an insured is:
Why: An EOB is not a bill; it itemizes the charge, the plan's allowed amount, what the plan paid, and the patient's remaining responsibility.
The federal Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) generally restricts the use of genetic information in:
Why: GINA limits how genetic information may be used in health coverage and employment, prohibiting discrimination based on genetic test results.
A plan has a $500 deductible, 80/20 coinsurance, and a $2,500 out-of-pocket maximum. On a $25,000 bill, the insured pays:
Why: Deductible $500 + 20% of $24,500 = $5,400, but the $2,500 out-of-pocket maximum caps the insured's cost at $2,500.
Per the definitions in O.C.G.A. § 33-21-1, a "health maintenance organization" is best described as any person who:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-1(6) defines a "health maintenance organization" as any person who undertakes to provide or arrange for one or more health benefits plans.
Per O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2, coverage is expressly NOT provided for a portion of a policy issued to a self-funded or uninsured employer plan. Which arrangement is listed as an example?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2 lists a multiple employer welfare arrangement as an example of a self-funded or uninsured employer plan for which coverage is not provided.
A central purpose of the coverage rules in O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2 is reflected in its statement that, where a person could otherwise be covered by more than one state's association, the chapter is construed to:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2(b)(5) construes the chapter, where a person could otherwise be covered by more than one state's association, to avoid duplicate coverage so the person is covered by only one association.
A reversionary annuity contract issued in Georgia is in default. Under O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2, it may be reinstated within what period from default, upon evidence of insurability satisfactory to the insurer?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2(b)(7) permits reinstatement of a defaulted reversionary annuity within three years from default upon evidence of insurability satisfactory to the insurer.
An insurer's salaried employee whose function relates solely to the processing, adjusting, investigating, or settling of a claim, and who receives no commission on Georgia risks, is:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-4(h)(2)(A)(ii) exempts an officer, director, or employee whose function relates to underwriting, loss control, inspection, or claims processing/adjusting and who receives no commission on Georgia risks from the agent licensing requirement.
Long-term care policies are generally required to be:
Why: LTC policies must be at least guaranteed renewable: the insurer must renew, though it may adjust premiums on a class basis.
A temporary insurance license is most commonly issued to:
Why: Temporary licenses (no exam) let someone service an existing book when a producer dies, becomes disabled, or enters military service.
Key person life insurance is purchased to protect a business against:
Why: The business owns, pays for, and is beneficiary of a policy on a key employee, offsetting the loss if that person dies.
In a variable annuity, accumulation units measure the contract's value:
Why: Accumulation units track value during the accumulation phase; annuity units are used during the payout phase.
A surplus lines broker licensed and in good standing in the broker's home state shall, under Code Section 33-23-16, receive in Georgia a:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-16(d) provides that a person licensed as a surplus lines broker in the home state shall receive a nonresident surplus lines broker license under subsection (a).
Per O.C.G.A. § 33-38-7, with respect to one owner of multiple nongroup life insurance policies, the Association's total obligation may not exceed:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-7(a)(12)(D) provides that the Association's total obligation for one owner of multiple nongroup life policies may not exceed $5 million in benefits.
In an indexed universal life policy, the interest credited to cash value is:
Why: Indexed UL credits interest linked to an external index (e.g., S&P 500) with a cap/participation rate and a guaranteed minimum floor.
A disability buy-sell policy's benefits are used to:
Why: Disability buy-sell provides funds for remaining owners to buy out an owner who becomes totally disabled, separate from income replacement or overhead coverage.
A holder of a temporary license issued under Code Section 33-23-13(a) is authorized to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-13(d) authorizes negotiation of renewals, receipt and collection of premiums, and acts necessary to continuance, but expressly does NOT authorize the holder to sell, solicit, or negotiate new insurance accounts.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-21-13, an HMO files an evidence-of-coverage form and the Commissioner takes no action. What happens at the expiration of 90 days?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-13 provides that at the expiration of 90 days a filed form, basic rate, or method of computation is deemed approved unless it is approved or disapproved before then.
For participating Georgia life policies, the insurer must begin to annually ascertain and apportion the divisible surplus no later than the end of which policy year?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-25-3(a)(4) requires the insurer in participating policies to begin annually ascertaining and apportioning the divisible surplus no later than the end of the third policy year.
An applicant for a large policy must justify the amount with their income and net worth. This is:
Why: Financial underwriting confirms the requested coverage is reasonable relative to the applicant's financial circumstances.
Under ERISA, a Summary Plan Description (SPD) must be provided to participants to:
Why: ERISA requires plans to furnish an SPD describing benefits, eligibility, and participants' rights and procedures.
What is a stated purpose of Georgia's Long-Term Care Insurance chapter?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-42-2 states that a purpose of the Long-Term Care Insurance chapter is to protect applicants from unfair or deceptive sales or enrollment practices.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-6, a managed care plan must make full and timely payment or reimbursement to providers and hospitals in the same manner and subject to the same penalties as required of insurers for which type of coverage?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-6(b) requires a managed care plan to make full and timely payment to providers and hospitals in the same manner and subject to the same penalties as insurers for group accident and sickness policies under 33-30-6(b)(5).
Under the ACA, a 24-year-old who is employed and not a student may remain on a parent's health plan:
Why: ACA requires plans offering dependent coverage to cover adult children to age 26 regardless of student, residency, or marital status.
A fraternal benefit society provides insurance:
Why: Fraternal benefit societies are nonprofit membership organizations providing insurance to members under a lodge system.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-21-3, what must an HMO do before changing its address?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-3 requires an HMO, before changing its address, to return the certificate of authority to the Commissioner of Insurance, who shall endorse it to indicate the change.
A producer tells a client false negative information about a competing insurer to win the sale. This is:
Why: Making false, maligning statements about another insurer is defamation, an unfair trade practice.
Regarding the individual who only enters claim data into an automated claims adjudication system, the exclusion from 'adjuster' applies where no more than how many such persons are supervised by one licensed independent adjuster or licensed agent?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-1(b)(8) excludes such a data-entry individual provided no more than 25 such persons are under the supervision of one licensed independent adjuster or licensed agent.
Under Georgia's standard annuity provisions, the reinstatement window of within one year from default does NOT apply to which type of contract?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-28-2(b)(6) provides that the one-year reinstatement window does not apply to reversionary annuities.
In a whole life policy, the 'net amount at risk' is the:
Why: The net amount at risk is the death benefit minus the accumulated cash value; it shrinks over time as the cash value grows toward the face amount.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-43-7, every issuer of Medicare supplement insurance in Georgia must, before use, provide a copy of any Medicare supplement advertisement to the Commissioner for:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-43-7 requires every issuer of Medicare supplement insurance to provide a copy of any Medicare supplement advertisement intended for use in this state to the Commissioner for review and approval.
To be 'fully insured' for Social Security retirement benefits, a worker generally needs:
Why: Fully insured status requires 40 quarters of coverage (roughly 10 years of work in covered employment).
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2, the Guaranty Association does NOT provide coverage for which of the following types of benefits?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-2 provides that the Guaranty Association does not cover Medicare Part C or D or Medicaid health care benefits.
O.C.G.A. § 33-6-3 establishes the basic prohibition of the article. What does it provide?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-3 provides that no person shall engage in any trade practice defined or determined under the article to be an unfair method of competition or an unfair or deceptive act or practice.
Under Georgia's Medicare Supplement law, within how many days of delivery may an applicant return a Medicare supplement policy or certificate for a full premium refund if not satisfied for any reason?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-43-6 permits the applicant to return a Medicare supplement policy or certificate within 30 days of delivery for a full premium refund if not satisfied for any reason.
Which of the following is expressly excluded from the definition of 'member insurer' under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-4?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-4(15) expressly excludes a fraternal benefit society from the definition of "member insurer."
At death, an insured personally owned the policy on their own life. The death proceeds are:
Why: Holding incidents of ownership causes the proceeds to be included in the insured's gross estate (though not subject to income tax).
A producer makes untrue statements in a public advertisement about a policy's benefits. This is:
Why: Untrue or misleading advertising about insurance is the unfair practice of false advertising/misrepresentation.
Before a proposed rule or regulation of the Georgia Commissioner of Insurance may become effective, for how long must it have been on file as a public record in the Commissioner's office?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-2-9(b) provides that a proposed rule, regulation, amendment, or repeal must be on file as a public record in the Commissioner's office for at least ten days before becoming effective.
Under Georgia group A&S law, the preexisting condition limitation does NOT apply to which of the following?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-30-15(d) provides that the preexisting condition limitation does not apply to pregnancies.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6, the board of directors of the Georgia guaranty association shall consist of how many member insurers?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6(a) provides that the board of directors of the association shall consist of not less than seven nor more than 11 member insurers, selected by the Commissioner from a list provided by the board.
A Georgia long-term care policy may not exclude coverage for a loss resulting from a preexisting condition unless the loss begins within what period after the effective date of coverage?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-42-6(c)(2) provides that an LTC policy may not exclude a loss resulting from a preexisting condition unless the loss begins within six months after the effective date.
A Medicare Part B late enrollment penalty generally:
Why: Delaying Part B without creditable coverage adds a lifetime surcharge (about 10% per 12 months of delay) to the premium.
Credit life insurance is typically written as:
Why: Credit life is decreasing term tied to the loan balance; if the borrower dies, it pays the remaining debt to the creditor.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6, members of the guaranty association board of directors may be compensated in what manner for their service?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-6(c) provides that board members may be reimbursed from association assets for reasonable expenses incurred in their capacity as board members but shall not otherwise be compensated by the association for their services.
An employee is injured on the job and needs medical care and wage replacement. The coverage that responds is:
Why: Workers' compensation is the state-mandated, no-fault coverage for job-related injuries and occupational disease.
For purposes of Georgia's life insurance free-look rule, a person is deemed to have 'received' the policy after the longer of two premium notices being sent or what elapsed period from the effective date?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-25-8(d) deems a person to have received the policy after the longer of six months from the effective date or the sending of two premium notices or statements of policy activity.
Key person disability insurance provides benefits to:
Why: Key person disability is owned by and paid to the business to cover losses and the cost of replacing an essential employee who becomes disabled.
Under Georgia group A&S law, the preexisting condition limitation for a group member who enrolls when newly eligible may not exceed how long?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-30-15(c) provides that the preexisting condition limitation for a member enrolling when newly eligible may not exceed 12 months.
Sharing or paying a commission to an unlicensed individual is generally:
Why: Commissions may be paid only to properly licensed persons; paying an unlicensed individual is prohibited (limited nominal referral fees aside).
Under Georgia's definition of insurable interest in personal insurance, an individual has what degree of insurable interest in his or her own life?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-24-3(b) provides that an individual has an unlimited insurable interest in his or her own life, health, and bodily safety.
A payor benefit rider, common on juvenile policies, provides that:
Why: If the adult paying premiums on a child's policy dies or becomes disabled, the payor benefit rider waives the premiums until the child reaches a stated age.
If an applicant understated their age on a life application, at the insured's death the insurer will:
Why: The misstatement-of-age provision adjusts the benefit to what the premium paid would have bought at the true age.
Under § 33-6-9, before imposing a penalty for violating a cease and desist order, what must occur?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-9 requires notice and hearing and an order of the Commissioner before a penalty may be imposed for violating a cease and desist order.
An endowment policy is distinguished by the fact that it:
Why: An endowment pays the face amount either at the insured's death or upon reaching the maturity date while living; modern tax rules limit their use.
A Section 1035 exchange permits a tax-free exchange of:
Why: 1035 allows tax-free life-to-life, life-to-annuity, and annuity-to-annuity exchanges, but NOT annuity-to-life.
Credit life insurance is typically structured so that:
Why: Credit life is usually decreasing term equal to the outstanding debt, with the lender as beneficiary; it cannot exceed the loan balance.
In a variable annuity, the assumed interest rate (AIR) is used to:
Why: The AIR is a benchmark: if separate-account performance exceeds the AIR, the next variable payment rises; if it lags, the payment falls.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-6-1, Georgia's Unfair Trade Practices article is enacted to regulate trade practices in the business of insurance in accordance with the intent of which federal enactment?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-1 provides that the Unfair Trade Practices article regulates trade practices in accordance with the intent of Congress in the McCarran-Ferguson Act of March 9, 1945 (Public Law 15, 79th Congress).
The 'unpaid premium' provision in a health policy allows the insurer to:
Why: If a premium is due and unpaid when a claim is payable, the insurer may deduct the amount owed from the claim proceeds.
Under § 33-6-35(a), when the Commissioner believes a person has engaged in an unfair claims settlement practice and a proceeding would be in the public interest, the statement of charges and notice of hearing are served in the same manner as provided in which section?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-35(a) provides that the statement of charges and notice of hearing are served in the same manner as provided in Code Section 33-6-7.
Georgia's required individual-policy provisions of O.C.G.A. § 33-25-3 generally do NOT apply to which of the following?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-25-3(b) provides that the required individual-policy provisions do not apply to credit or group insurance.
Withdrawing taxable gains from a deferred annuity before age 59½ generally results in:
Why: Pre-59½ distributions of gains are subject to ordinary income tax plus a 10% IRS penalty.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-6-4(c), a person who violates the Code section by making unlawful, false representations as to the policy sold shall be guilty of what?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-4(c) provides that a person who violates the section by making unlawful, false representations as to the policy sold shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-5, the list of individual participating providers that an enrollee is entitled to upon request must be updated at least how often?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-20A-5(1) requires that the list of individual participating providers available to an enrollee on request be updated at least every 30 days.
Medicare Part B helps pay for:
Why: Part B covers physician services, outpatient care, durable medical equipment, and preventive services, typically paying 80% after the deductible.
Per O.C.G.A. § 33-38-21, the maximum monetary penalty for a single act or violation of the prohibition on referencing the association in insurance advertisements is:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-38-21(b)(1) sets a monetary penalty of not more than $1,000 for each act or violation of the advertising prohibition.
Under O.C.G.A. § 33-21-9, how long must an HMO maintain records of written complaints concerning health care services?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-21-9(b) requires an HMO to maintain records of written complaints for five years from the time the complaints are filed.
Under § 33-6-4(b)(8)(A)(iv)(I), refusing to insure an individual or charging a different rate for the same coverage because of that individual's race, color, or national or ethnic origin is treated as what?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-4(b)(8)(A)(iv)(I) treats refusing to insure or charging a different rate for the same coverage because of race, color, or national or ethnic origin as an unfair and deceptive act constituting unfair discrimination.
In which policy does the owner bear the investment risk, with cash value fluctuating based on separate-account performance?
Why: Variable life invests cash value in separate accounts; the owner bears investment risk, so cash value (and sometimes death benefit) can rise or fall. It requires a securities license to sell.
Policy dividends paid on a participating life policy are best described as:
Why: Dividends are a non-guaranteed return of overpaid premium and are generally not taxable until they exceed the total premiums paid.
Which of the following must a Georgia insurance license state under Code Section 33-23-11?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-11(b) provides the license shall state the name and address of the licensee, the date of issue, general conditions on expiration or termination, the kind(s) of insurance covered if not an agency license, and other conditions of licensing.
Which type of life insurance provides lifelong coverage with a level premium and a guaranteed cash value?
Why: Whole life is permanent coverage with a level premium and a guaranteed, tax-deferred cash value. Term provides only temporary coverage with no cash value.
In a fixed annuity, the investment risk is borne by:
Why: A fixed annuity guarantees principal and a minimum interest rate, so the insurer bears the investment risk.
A Medicare SELECT policy is a type of Medigap that:
Why: Medicare SELECT is a Medigap policy that requires using network providers (except emergencies) in return for a lower premium.
If a policyowner surrenders a cash-value life policy, the taxable amount is:
Why: On surrender, the gain (cash value minus the cost basis of premiums paid) is taxed as ordinary income.
Under § 33-6-34(5), compelling insureds or beneficiaries to file suit to recover amounts due is an unfair claims settlement practice when the insurer does what?
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-6-34(5) makes it an unfair practice to compel insureds or beneficiaries to file suit by offering substantially less than the amounts ultimately recovered in suits brought by them.
Under Georgia's insurable interest statute, a qualifying charitable institution has an insurable interest in the life of:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-24-3 provides that a qualifying charitable institution has an insurable interest in the life of any donor.
A person who willfully violates the licensing requirements of Code Section 33-23-4 is, upon conviction:
Why: O.C.G.A. § 33-23-4(g) provides that any person who willfully violates the Code section is guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to punishment under Code Section 17-10-3.