Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real New York exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
New York licenses Property & Casualty brokers and agents through PSI, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus New York law - no-fault auto (Article 51), property and homeowners (the standard fire policy and Regulation 35-D), and workers' compensation.
You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the New York Insurance Law, Vehicle & Traffic Law and Workers' Compensation Law for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full New York bank contains 1012 questions (general insurance plus New York law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A qualified person injured by a KNOWN uninsured motorist must file an affidavit (notice of claim) with MVAIC within how many days of the accrual of the cause of action?
Why: §5208(a)(1) requires a qualified person to file the affidavit within one hundred eighty days of accrual as a condition precedent to applying for payment.
Vocational rehabilitation benefits under workers' compensation are intended to:
Why: Vocational rehabilitation provides retraining, education, or job-placement assistance so an injured worker can return to suitable employment.
A worker can return to light-duty work at reduced hours and lower pay while still recovering. The wage-loss benefit during this period is classified as:
Why: Temporary partial disability (TPD) compensates for the wage loss when a recovering worker can perform some work but earns less than before the injury.
Section 2108(o) restricts an adjuster's conduct in transacting business. What does it prohibit?
Why: Section 2108(o) bars a licensee from making any misrepresentation of facts or advising any person on questions of law in transacting adjuster business.
Which statement about New York workers' compensation coverage exemptions is MOST accurate?
Why: Section 3 extends coverage to virtually all employment carried on for pecuniary gain with one or more employees; the exemptions are narrow (e.g., certain clergy, specified volunteers, some nonmanual/teaching roles for religious or charitable institutions).
Which statement about Homeowners Section II Coverage E limits is correct?
Why: Personal Liability (Coverage E) is written with a per-occurrence limit, commonly starting at $100,000 and increasable for higher protection.
After a producer's license is revoked under Article 21, when may that person obtain a new license?
Why: Section 2110(e)(1) bars obtaining any license for one year after revocation, or one year after a final determination affirming the revocation.
Injuries to civilian federal government employees (such as a postal or federal agency worker) are covered under:
Why: FECA provides workers' compensation benefits to civilian employees of the federal government for job-related injuries and illnesses.
An agent circulates a memorandum that misrepresents the dividends a life policy will pay in order to induce a prospect to surrender an existing policy. Which statute most directly addresses this conduct?
Why: Section 2123(a) bars issuing or circulating any illustration, circular, statement, or memorandum misrepresenting the terms, benefits, or advantages of a life, accident, or health policy, including misleading estimates of dividends.
An 'insured contract' in the CGL includes:
Why: Insured contracts are specified agreements (leases, easements, sidetrack agreements, etc.) in which the insured assumes another party's tort liability.
Under § 2601, the good-faith duty to effectuate prompt, fair, and equitable settlements applies to claims in which liability has become reasonably clear, except where there is a reasonable basis supported by specific information that the claimant caused the loss by:
Why: Section 2601(a)(4) carves out an exception where there is a reasonable basis supported by specific information available to the department that the claimant caused the loss to occur by arson.
Under §13, an employer's liability for medical treatment causally related to a compensable injury is:
Why: Section 13 requires the employer to provide medical, surgical, and related care for such period as the nature of the injury or the process of recovery may require. Causally related medical benefits are not capped in dollars or duration.
An applicant for a broker's license under § 2104(b)(1)(B) chooses to qualify through work experience rather than coursework. What experience is required?
Why: Section 2104(c)(1)(B) allows qualification by at least one year of responsible insurance duties (underwriting or adjusting) during the three years next preceding the application.
Under the FCRA, when an insurer denies an application or charges a higher premium based on a consumer report, it must provide the consumer with:
Why: The FCRA requires an adverse action notice that informs the consumer of the action, identifies the reporting agency, and explains the right to obtain a free copy of the report and dispute it.
A surety bond fundamentally differs from insurance because:
Why: Surety is a three-party credit guarantee; the surety expects no net loss because the principal indemnifies it, unlike insurance which transfers risk.
Under § 2408, an intervenor may commence a proceeding for judicial review when the superintendent's report or order:
Why: Section 2408 allows an intervenor to commence a proceeding for judicial review if the superintendent's § 2405(c) report or § 2406(a) order does not charge a violation of the article.
Under the Homeowners policy, the policy period and territory generally cover losses occurring:
Why: Coverage applies to losses during the policy period within the policy territory, commonly the United States, its territories and possessions, and Canada.
Which dwelling form would be most appropriate for the broadest property protection on an owner-occupied home?
Why: DP-3 provides open-perils coverage on the dwelling and is the broadest of the standard dwelling forms for the structure.
The coursework, experience, and military-service qualification requirements of § 2104(c)(1) do not apply to which applicant?
Why: Section 2104(c)(2) provides that the requirements of subparagraphs (A), (B), and (C) shall not apply to any non-resident insurance broker.
A fidelity bond protects an employer against:
Why: Fidelity bonds (employee dishonesty coverage) protect an employer from loss due to employee theft or fraud.
Under the standard fire policy, an assignment of the policy is valid only:
Why: The insuring agreement provides that assignment of the policy shall not be valid except with the written consent of the company.
Supplementary Uninsured/Underinsured Motorists (SUM) coverage under §3420(f)(2) is offered:
Why: §3420(f)(2) provides SUM at the option of the insured, in an amount up to the bodily injury liability limits of the policy.
In the Business Auto Coverage Form, covered auto designation symbols determine:
Why: Numbered symbols (1–9) entered next to each coverage in the Declarations define which categories of autos that coverage applies to.
What is the typical special limit for theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware under Coverage C?
Why: Theft of silverware, goldware, and pewterware is commonly subject to a $2,500 special limit under Coverage C.
Which statement about Part Two (Employers Liability) limits and Part One is correct?
Why: Part One has no policy limit (the statute controls benefits), while Part Two carries stated dollar limits for the three employers liability exposures.
After a covered loss, the insured's duties include all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: Insureds must give notice, mitigate further damage, and document the loss, but they must NOT voluntarily assume obligations or admit liability.
Defense costs under the standard CGL are:
Why: Under the standard CGL, defense costs are paid in addition to the limits as part of Supplementary Payments (unlike many specialty 'defense-within-limits' policies).
Cyber/Network security liability insurance is designed primarily to address:
Why: Cyber policies cover first- and third-party costs from data breaches, privacy claims, and network security incidents.
A hit-and-run accident with an unidentified driver who flees is typically covered under which PAP part?
Why: An unidentified hit-and-run vehicle is treated as an uninsured motor vehicle, so bodily injury is addressed under Part C — Uninsured Motorists.
A Homeowners insured suffers theft of firearms. The special Coverage C limit for theft of firearms is commonly:
Why: Theft of firearms is subject to a special sublimit (commonly $2,500) under Coverage C; collections worth more should be scheduled.