Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real California exam you need 60%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
California licenses Property Broker-Agent and Casualty Broker-Agent as separate PSI exams (60% to pass), and many candidates hold both. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus California law - auto, property and homeowners, and workers' compensation.
You need 60%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the California Insurance Code, Vehicle Code and Labor Code for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full California bank contains 996 questions (general insurance plus California law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
An insurer incorporated in London, England and operating in the United States is classified as:
Why: An alien insurer is one incorporated outside the United States.
Every license issued under this chapter must state on it all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: Sec. 1650 requires the license to state the licensee's name, capacity, conditions, effective and expiration dates, and (for organizations) qualified natural persons; commissions earned are not required.
Under §2051, a deduction for physical depreciation in computing actual cash value of a structure may be applied to:
Why: Section 2051(b) states a depreciation deduction shall apply only to components of a structure normally subject to repair and replacement during the useful life of that structure.
The three-day waiting period for temporary disability under Section 4652 does NOT apply (so TD is payable from the date of disability) if:
Why: Section 4652 waives the three-day waiting period where temporary disability continues more than 14 days or the employee is hospitalized as an inpatient for treatment of the injury.
If an insured carries 100/300 UM limits and is hit by a driver with 25/50 liability limits, underinsured motorists coverage may provide additional recovery of up to:
Why: UIM allows the insured to recover the gap between their UIM limit and the underinsured driver's limits, subject to how the state/policy coordinates the limits.
Notwithstanding Section 1642, Section 1649.5 permits an insurer to do what?
Why: Sec. 1649.5 allows an insurer, notwithstanding Sec. 1642, to own or control a separate entity licensed as a property/casualty broker-agent or life agent.
Before workers' compensation laws, employers defending common-law negligence suits could use several defenses. Which of the following was one of those defenses that WC laws effectively removed?
Why: The common-law defenses WC removed were contributory negligence, assumption of risk, and the fellow-servant rule (injury caused by a coworker). WC made these defenses irrelevant to benefit eligibility.
When a business hires independent contractors, the business's own CGL primarily protects it against:
Why: The hiring firm's CGL responds to its vicarious liability and its own negligence; the contractor should carry separate coverage for its operations.
Under §2071, an insurer must provide the insured with a written status report if, within a six-month period, it assigns which adjuster to be primarily responsible for the claim?
Why: Section 2071 requires a written status report when, within a six-month period, the company assigns a third or subsequent adjuster to be primarily responsible for a claim.
In a reinsurance arrangement, the company that transfers (gives up) part of its risk is called the:
Why: The ceding insurer is the original insurer that cedes a portion of its risk to a reinsurer.
Section 16056 schedules a further increase to California's minimum auto liability limits. For policies issued or renewed on or after which date do the minimums increase again?
Why: Veh. Code §16056(d) provides that for policies issued or renewed on or after January 1, 2035, the minimums increase by $20,000/$40,000 for bodily injury and $10,000 for property damage (to 50/100/25).
Suitability in insurance sales means a producer should:
Why: Suitability requires that recommendations fit the client's actual needs, financial situation, and objectives rather than the producer's compensation.
Under Homeowners Coverage C special limits, money, bank notes, and coins are typically limited to about:
Why: Money, bank notes, gold, and coins carry a low special limit (commonly $200) under Coverage C.
Which licensee may be exempt from the continuing education requirements under Section 1749.3?
Why: Sec. 1749.3(c) exempts a licensee in good standing for 30 continuous years who is 70 or older, but not those first licensed on or after January 1, 2010.
Section 791.13 generally bars disclosure of personal or privileged information about an individual. Which of the following is a disclosure expressly permitted by that section?
Why: Section 791.13(h) permits disclosure made in response to a facially valid administrative or judicial order, including a search warrant or subpoena, among the other narrowly defined permitted disclosures.
Under the BACF, if a covered auto is a total loss, the insurer generally pays:
Why: BACF physical damage settlement is based on the lesser of ACV or repair cost, less the applicable deductible, similar to the PAP.
Under Section 4652, temporary disability indemnity is generally not recoverable for the disability suffered during:
Why: Section 4652 imposes a three-day waiting period: no TD is recoverable for the first three days off work unless disability continues more than 14 days or the employee is hospitalized as an inpatient.
A spouse of an injured worker sues the employer for loss of the worker's companionship and services resulting from the work injury. This is an example of which type of claim Part Two may cover?
Why: Part Two can cover consequential bodily injury and care/loss of services (loss of consortium) suits brought by family members related to the employee's work injury.
Under the ISO Commercial General Liability Coverage Form, which coverage part responds to bodily injury and property damage liability arising out of the insured's premises and operations?
Why: Coverage A insures bodily injury and property damage liability. Coverage B is personal and advertising injury; Coverage C is medical payments.
A 'nonscheduled' (unscheduled) permanent partial disability typically involves:
Why: Nonscheduled injuries affect the body as a whole or parts not on the schedule (such as the back), and benefits are based on the impact on earning capacity or impairment rating.
After a hit-and-run accident by an unknown driver, within how many days must the insured file a sworn statement with the insurer describing a cause of action against the unidentified party?
Why: Ins. Code §11580.2(b)(2) requires the insured to file with the insurer, within 30 days, a statement under oath setting forth the facts supporting a cause of action against the unknown party.
A reporting form in commercial property is used when:
Why: Reporting forms suit fluctuating inventory values; the insured periodically reports values and premium adjusts, helping match coverage to actual exposure.
Under §2052, if an insured wants a valuation named in a fire policy insuring a building, who bears the cost of the examination fixing that value?
Why: Section 2052 allows the insured to require examination and agreed valuation of the building's insured value, but the cost of the examination shall be paid by the insured.
A general contractor requires its subcontractor to name it as an additional insured. The PRIMARY benefit to the general contractor is:
Why: As an additional insured on the sub's policy, the GC obtains coverage for liability arising out of the subcontractor's operations.
Which of the following best states the purpose of the deductible in Section I of a Homeowners policy?
Why: The Section I property deductible has the insured retain a portion of each loss, discouraging small claims and lowering premium; it does not apply to Section II liability.
Tenant's improvements and betterments installed by a lessee are usually insured under:
Why: Improvements and betterments made by a tenant (that cannot be legally removed) are covered as the tenant's business personal property under Coverage B.
Under the BACF, coverage for an auto "you don't own" while being used in your business is provided by which symbol when paired with the appropriate coverage?
Why: Symbol 9 designates non-owned autos used in the business, including employees' vehicles.
Every individual and organization licensee must file with the commissioner the true name and all fictitious names used. Under Section 1724.5, the commissioner may disapprove a name on which of these grounds?
Why: Sec. 1724.5(b) lists, among grounds for disapproval, that use of the name may mislead the public in any respect.
Under the PAP, if the named insured dies, coverage is typically extended to:
Why: Part F's death provision continues coverage for the surviving resident spouse and the deceased's legal representative (and certain custodians) for a limited time.
Under a Homeowners policy, the 'residence premises' definition primarily refers to:
Why: Residence premises is the one- to four-family dwelling where the insured resides, as shown in the Declarations, including grounds and related structures.