Evergreen Insurance Prep

Ohio Life & Health Insurance License, Practice Exams

Ohio Life, Accident & Health producer licensing (Series 11-35). General insurance knowledge plus the Ohio Revised Code, authored from public-domain statutes.
Content last updated 23 June 2026

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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Ohio exam you need 70%.

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The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.

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Frequently asked questions

How is the Ohio producer licensing exam structured?

Ohio licenses a combined Life, Accident & Health producer (the PSI Series 11-35 exam) - 150 questions, 2 hours 30 minutes, 70% to pass.

What score do I need to pass?

You need 70%. Practice each module to that level and run the full exam simulation before your test date.

Are these real exam questions?

No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Ohio Revised Code for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Ohio bank contains 1042 questions (general insurance plus Ohio law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.

Do I need to create an account?

No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

Sample Ohio Life & Health Insurance License practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

When an Ohio HIC plan restricts an enrollee's choice among a class of providers differently than another class, section 1751.51 requires the evidence of coverage to disclose this under a specific heading. That heading reads:

  1. 'Limitations and Exclusions of Benefits'
  2. 'Restrictions on Choice of Providers' ✓
  3. 'Network Access and Referral Rules'
  4. 'Provider Participation Disclosures'

Why: Section 1751.51(A) requires a clear, concise, and complete statement of the restriction under a heading that reads 'Restrictions on Choice of Providers.'

A Medicare Part B late enrollment penalty generally:

  1. Permanently raises the monthly Part B premium ✓
  2. Blocks the person from ever enrolling in Part B in the future
  3. Applies as a one-time fee at the first physician visit
  4. Is automatically waived after the first two years of coverage

Why: Delaying Part B without creditable coverage adds a lifetime surcharge (about 10% per 12 months of delay) to the premium.

Under Ohio law, who may apply to the superintendent of insurance for a certificate of authority to establish and operate a health insuring corporation?

  1. Any corporation as defined in the chapter, subject to its requirements ✓
  2. Only a political subdivision acting through its board of county commissioners
  3. Any natural person residing within the HIC's proposed service area
  4. Only an intermediary organization that contracts with self-insured employers

Why: Section 1751.02(A) provides that any corporation, as defined in section 1751.01, may apply for a certificate of authority. A foreign corporation from a state without similar laws must form a domestic corporation.

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A war exclusion in a life policy generally:

  1. Excludes death caused by an act of war ✓
  2. Pays an additional benefit when the insured dies while on active military duty
  3. Applies only to commercial airline passengers and never to military personnel
  4. Voids the entire policy if the insured ever travels outside the country

Why: A war exclusion excludes or limits payment for death resulting from war (and, in the broader 'status' form, death while in military service), often refunding premiums instead.

In a variable annuity, the assumed interest rate (AIR) is used to:

  1. Benchmark whether each payout rises or falls during the annuity period ✓
  2. Guarantee the contract a fixed minimum return every single year
  3. Set the surrender charge applied during the first contract year
  4. Determine the commission paid to the selling producer

Why: The AIR is a benchmark: if separate-account performance exceeds the AIR, the next variable payment rises; if it lags, the payment falls.

Under Ohio's group life conversion provision, when the entire group policy terminates, an insured who had been covered for at least five years may convert to an individual policy in an amount not exceeding the lesser of the ceasing coverage or what dollar cap?

  1. $5,000
  2. $10,000 ✓
  3. $25,000
  4. $50,000

Why: Section 3917.06(I) limits the convertible amount on group-policy termination to the smaller of the ceasing coverage (reduced by replacement coverage) or TEN THOUSAND DOLLARS, available to persons insured at least five years before termination.

An insurer's special investigations unit reports a suspected fraudulent insurance act to the superintendent without malice. Under Ohio's immunity statute, what is the insurer's exposure for libel or slander?

  1. The insurer is strictly liable for any reputational harm to the suspect in that particular circumstance
  2. No civil liability arises, in the absence of fraud or bad faith, for providing such information ✓
  3. The insurer is liable unless it first obtains a court order
  4. Liability depends solely on whether the suspect is later convicted

Why: Section 3999.31(B) provides that, in the absence of fraud or bad faith, no civil liability arises against a person for providing or receiving information relating to suspected fraudulent insurance acts furnished to listed recipients such as the superintendent.

An agent who receives a copy of a termination notification may file written comments with the superintendent within what period?

  1. Within ten days after receiving the notification
  2. Within thirty days after receiving the notification ✓
  3. Within sixty days after receiving the notification
  4. Within ninety days after receiving the notification

Why: § 3905.21(C)(2) allows the agent to file written comments within thirty days after receiving the notification.

An insurer seeks to deny a claim based on a misstatement in the application. Under § 3923.14, which showing is required for the misstatement to bar recovery?

  1. That the statement was merely inaccurate in some respect
  2. That, but for the false statement, the policy would not have been issued, along with willful falsity, fraud, materiality, and inducement ✓
  3. That the insured failed to read the application before signing it unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force according to the insurer's rules
  4. That the misstatement related to the insured's age

Why: Section 3923.14 requires clear proof of willful falsity, fraud, materiality to the risk, inducement, and that but for the false statement the policy would not have been issued.

In the application process, the producer often acts as the 'field underwriter,' meaning they:

  1. Gather information and make an initial assessment of the risk ✓
  2. Set the final premium and issue the policy under the policy's terms
  3. Pay claims on behalf of the insurer
  4. Audit the insurer's financial statements

Why: As field underwriter the producer collects accurate information and screens obvious risks before formal underwriting.

Modified whole life insurance is characterized by:

  1. A premium that is higher in the first years and then drops sharply
  2. A lower premium for an initial period, then a higher level premium for life ✓
  3. Coverage that decreases steadily until it reaches zero at age 65
  4. Premiums that fluctuate yearly based on the insurer's investment returns

Why: Modified whole life charges a reduced premium for the first few years, then a higher level premium for the remainder of life.

Eligibility for Medicaid is based primarily on:

  1. Financial need (limited income and assets) ✓
  2. Reaching age 65 regardless of income
  3. Having paid 40 quarters into the system
  4. Enrollment in a private health plan

Why: Medicaid is a means-tested, joint federal-state program for low-income individuals; eligibility varies by state.

If an insured dies during the grace period with a premium still unpaid, the insurer:

  1. Pays the death benefit minus the premium that was owed ✓
  2. Denies the claim entirely because the premium was late
  3. Refunds only the prior premiums and pays no benefit
  4. Pays double the face amount as a good-faith gesture

Why: Coverage stays in force during the grace period; a death claim is paid, with the overdue premium deducted from the proceeds.

A client wants a guaranteed income they cannot outlive, accepting that payments stop at death with nothing to heirs. The option offering the highest payment is:

  1. Straight life (pure life) annuity ✓
  2. Life with 20-year period certain
  3. Joint and survivor annuity
  4. Installment refund annuity

Why: Pure life pays the most because payments cease at death with no refund or survivor benefit; the other options pay less to protect a beneficiary.

A Medicare beneficiary delayed Part D for three years without other creditable drug coverage. The result is:

  1. A permanent late-enrollment surcharge added to the Part D premium ✓
  2. A complete bar from ever enrolling in Part D
  3. A one-time penalty paid at the first prescription in most situations
  4. No consequence, since Part D is always optional

Why: Going without creditable coverage adds a permanent late-enrollment surcharge to the Part D premium.

A nonqualified deferred compensation plan is an arrangement in which an employer agrees to:

  1. Pay an executive future compensation, without meeting qualified-plan rules ✓
  2. Contribute equally for every employee under strict nondiscrimination tests
  3. Match the employee's 401(k) contributions dollar for dollar each year
  4. Provide tax-free retirement income guaranteed by the federal government

Why: Nonqualified deferred comp promises future pay to select executives; it avoids qualified-plan nondiscrimination rules but the employer's deduction is deferred until paid.

The federal Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) generally restricts the use of genetic information in:

  1. Health insurance and employment decisions ✓
  2. Property and casualty insurance underwriting only
  3. Setting state automobile insurance premium rates
  4. Determining eligibility for federal student loans

Why: GINA limits how genetic information may be used in health coverage and employment, prohibiting discrimination based on genetic test results.

Increasing term insurance is characterized by a death benefit that:

  1. Rises over the policy term ✓
  2. Stays exactly level for the whole duration of the contract
  3. Falls steadily until it reaches zero at the end of the term
  4. Is determined each year by the performance of a market index

Why: Increasing term's face amount grows over time (often used with return-of-premium or to track inflation); decreasing term does the opposite.

An applicant whose principal occupation is managing a household applies for disability income insurance and is turned down solely on that basis. Under § 3901.21, this constitutes:

  1. A permissible underwriting decision based on occupation class unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  2. An unfair act of refusing to make disability income insurance available solely because the applicant manages a household ✓
  3. Unfair discrimination by marital status
  4. A lawful pattern settlement

Why: Section 3901.21(N) makes it an unfair act to refuse to make available disability income insurance solely because the applicant's principal occupation is that of managing a household.

The interest payable on life insurance proceeds under Ohio law is the greater of the federal short-term applicable rate for the month of death or:

  1. The current interest rate on proceeds left on deposit under the policy's interest settlement option ✓
  2. A fixed statutory rate of eight per cent
  3. The policy's guaranteed cash value interest rate unless an exception clearly applies for the coverage that is in force
  4. The Moody's corporate bond yield average

Why: Section 3915.052(B) sets interest at the greater of the federal short-term rate or the current rate on proceeds left on deposit under the policy's interest settlement option.

An Ohio HIC plan covers dental care, vision care with lenses and frames, and chiropractic services. Under the statutory definitions, these benefits are categorized as which type of service?

  1. Basic health care services that must all be offered together
  2. Supplemental health care services the HIC may offer ✓
  3. Emergency health services required to be available continuously
  4. Specialty health care services offered only on an inpatient basis

Why: Section 1751.01(B) defines supplemental health care services to include dental, vision (lenses and frames), and chiropractic services, which an HIC may offer alone or in combination.

A juvenile policy has a payor benefit rider. The premium-paying parent dies while the child is 8. The rider:

  1. Waives the premiums until the child reaches a stated age ✓
  2. Pays the death benefit to the child immediately
  3. Cancels the child's coverage at once
  4. Converts the policy into an annuity

Why: A payor rider waives premiums if the premium-paying adult dies or becomes disabled, keeping the child's coverage in force.

Under Ohio's criminal insurance fraud statute, what mental state must a person have to be guilty of insurance fraud when presenting a false statement to an insurer?

  1. A purpose to defraud or knowledge that the person is facilitating a fraud ✓
  2. Mere negligence in completing the form
  3. A reasonable suspicion that the claim might be overstated in most situations
  4. Strict liability regardless of intent

Why: Section 2913.47(B) provides that no person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud, shall present a false or deceptive statement to an insurer.

For which group of lines does Ohio require the pre-application written examination under § 3905.04(B)?

  1. Only portable electronics and self-service storage insurance unless an exception clearly applies
  2. The lines in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of § 3905.06, plus title insurance and surety bail bonds ✓
  3. Only variable life and variable annuity products
  4. Travel insurance and credit insurance only

Why: § 3905.04(B) requires the exam for the lines in § 3905.06(B)(1)-(5), title insurance, surety bail bonds, and any other line the superintendent designates.

In ERISA-governed plans, 'vesting' refers to an employee's:

  1. Nonforfeitable right to employer-contributed retirement benefits ✓
  2. Right to receive their full salary while on an approved medical leave
  3. Option to convert group coverage to an individual policy at any time
  4. Ability to name a new beneficiary on the group life certificate

Why: Vesting is the employee's nonforfeitable right to employer contributions, earned under the plan's vesting schedule.

Under the guaranty chapter, an 'insolvent insurer' is a member insurer that, after November 20, 1989, is placed under what kind of court order?

  1. An order of rehabilitation or conservation
  2. An order of liquidation with a finding of insolvency ✓
  3. A cease-and-desist order
  4. An order suspending its certificate of authority

Why: Section 3956.01(H) defines an insolvent insurer as one placed under an order of liquidation by a court of competent jurisdiction with a finding of insolvency.

A producer tells a client false negative information about a competing insurer to win the sale. This is:

  1. Defamation ✓
  2. Rebating
  3. Twisting
  4. Coercion

Why: Making false, maligning statements about another insurer is defamation, an unfair trade practice.

A flexible spending account (FSA) is characterized by which feature?

  1. Generally 'use it or lose it' — unused funds may be forfeited each year ✓
  2. Full portability, moving with the employee from job to job for life
  3. Eligibility only for those enrolled in a high-deductible health plan
  4. Tax-free growth of invested balances over the employee's career

Why: An FSA is employer-established, funded with pre-tax salary deferrals, and is generally use-it-or-lose-it within the plan year (limited carryover/grace).

A fraternal benefit society provides insurance:

  1. To its members through a lodge or membership system, on a nonprofit basis ✓
  2. To the general public the same as a commercial insurer under the policy's terms
  3. Only to government employees
  4. Exclusively as group annuities

Why: Fraternal benefit societies are nonprofit membership organizations providing insurance to members under a lodge system.

Under Ohio's grace-period provision, if the insured dies during the month of grace, the policy may stipulate that the overdue premium:

  1. Will be deducted in any settlement under the policy ✓
  2. Must be paid in full by the beneficiary before any settlement
  3. Is forgiven entirely with no deduction
  4. Voids the death claim

Why: Section 3915.05(B) permits a stipulation that if the insured dies during the grace month, the overdue premium will be deducted from the settlement.