Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Texas exam you need a scaled score of 70.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Texas issues a General Lines - Property & Casualty license. The Pearson VUE exam has 150 scored questions (national P&C insurance plus Texas law), runs 150 minutes, and requires a scaled score of 70 to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Texas law - auto, property and homeowners, and workers' compensation.
You need a scaled score of 70. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Texas Insurance Code, Transportation Code and Labor Code for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Texas bank contains 987 questions (general insurance plus Texas law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
Job classification codes in workers' compensation are used to:
Why: Classification codes group occupations by similar hazard/loss potential so that a rate reflecting that exposure can be applied to the payroll in each class.
A worker permanently loses one finger but can return to the same job. This injury is best classified as:
Why: Permanent partial disability (PPD) applies when there is a permanent impairment but the worker is not totally disabled and can still work.
The policy provision that states the insurer's promise to pay covered losses is the:
Why: The insuring agreement is the insurer's core promise describing what coverage is provided in exchange for premium.
A health benefit plan issuer rejects an applicant because the applicant is not fluent in English and cannot read English-language materials. Under Subchapter C of Chapter 544, basing an underwriting guideline on an applicant's English fluency or English literacy is:
Why: Sec. 544.103(a) prohibits a health benefit plan issuer from using an underwriting guideline based on English fluency or English literacy.
Medical Payments to Others (Coverage F) typically does NOT pay for injuries to:
Why: Coverage F excludes the named insured and regular residents of the household; it is intended for injuries to third parties, not the insureds themselves.
Under the PAP, glass breakage is typically covered under:
Why: Glass breakage is normally covered as an Other Than Collision (comprehensive) loss, though it can be claimed as collision when caused by a collision event.
A loss payable clause in a property policy primarily protects:
Why: A loss payable clause directs claim payments to a designated party (such as a lender) holding an interest in the covered property.
Texas UM/UIM and PIP rejections must be made by the named insured in what form to be effective?
Why: Both 1952.101(c) (UM/UIM) and 1952.152(b) (PIP) require the named insured's rejection to be in writing.
A homeowner applies for NFIP flood coverage on June 1 because heavy rains are forecast. A flood damages the home on June 10. The claim will most likely be:
Why: Because the standard 30-day NFIP waiting period had not yet passed, the policy was not in effect at the time of loss and the claim would be denied.
Under §2210.052(a), how is each TWIA member insurer's share of association losses and operating expenses (in excess of premium and revenue) determined?
Why: §2210.052(a) apportions each member's participation in TWIA losses and expenses in the proportion that the member's net direct premiums during the preceding calendar year bear to the aggregate net direct premiums of all members.
Which statement about no-fault auto insurance CONCEPTS is generally correct?
Why: Under no-fault concepts, an injured person's own insurer pays specified personal injury/economic losses regardless of who caused the accident, with limits on lawsuits.
The National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) is administered by which federal agency?
Why: The NFIP is administered by FEMA, an agency within the Department of Homeland Security.
An insured has a claims-made CGL with a retroactive date of 1/1/2020. An injury occurred in 2019 but the claim is first made in 2024 while the policy is in force. The claim is:
Why: Even though the claim is made during the policy period, the injury predates the retroactive date, so it is not covered.
A pet dog owned by the insured causes damage. Animals are addressed in a Homeowners policy how?
Why: Animals, birds, and fish are excluded as Coverage C property, but bodily injury or property damage caused by a pet may be covered under Section II liability.
An automobile assigned-risk plan is a type of:
Why: Assigned-risk plans are auto residual markets that assign drivers who cannot obtain coverage voluntarily to insurers in proportion to their market share.
The primary purpose of the 30-day NFIP waiting period is to:
Why: The waiting period reduces adverse selection by preventing purchase of coverage immediately before a known or imminent flood.
Under the BACF, if a covered auto is a total loss, the insurer generally pays:
Why: BACF physical damage settlement is based on the lesser of ACV or repair cost, less the applicable deductible, similar to the PAP.
A bookkeeper embezzles $50,000 from her employer over two years. Which form responds?
Why: Employee theft of employer funds is covered by a fidelity bond/employee dishonesty coverage, not the CGL.
A general contractor requires its subcontractor to name it as an additional insured. The PRIMARY benefit to the general contractor is:
Why: As an additional insured on the sub's policy, the GC obtains coverage for liability arising out of the subcontractor's operations.
Rating that relies on the underwriter's individual judgment when little statistical data exists is called:
Why: Judgment rating is used for unique or hard-to-classify risks where the underwriter sets the rate based on experience and judgment.
Which optional coverage can be added to a BOP to cover liability arising from autos the insured hires or borrows but does not own?
Why: Hired and Non-Owned Auto liability can be added to a BOP to cover liability arising from autos hired or used in the business that the insured does not own.
Which Homeowners form provides the narrowest, modified settlement and is limited in covered perils for the dwelling?
Why: HO-8 is the Modified Coverage Form with restricted perils and functional/repair-cost settlement, designed for older homes; it is narrower than HO-2 or HO-3.
A landlord owns a rental house and wants to insure the building and recover lost rents but does not need contents coverage. Which policy line fits best?
Why: The Dwelling Policy is well suited to landlord/rental risks, providing Coverage A on the structure and Coverage D for lost fair rental value, without requiring contents coverage.
An insured who intentionally sets fire to insured property to collect on the policy demonstrates:
Why: A moral hazard exists when a person's dishonesty or tendency to cause a loss, such as arson for profit, increases the chance of loss.
Insurance that covers a single, identified item for a specific amount is called:
Why: Specific/scheduled insurance lists individual items, each with its own assigned limit of coverage.
A homeowner is sued because a visitor slipped on an icy walkway and was injured. The cost of the insurer defending this suit is:
Why: Defense costs under Section II are generally provided in addition to the Coverage E limit of liability and continue until the limit is exhausted by settlement or judgment.
A contested case hearing in the Texas workers' compensation system is conducted by a(n):
Why: A contested case hearing is conducted by an administrative law judge (formerly called a 'hearing officer'), who must be licensed to practice law in Texas.
It is a deceptive act under Section 541.059 for a person in the insurance business to use a business name, word, symbol, or slogan deceptively similar to one used by another authorized insurer. However, the statute provides a defense for the person who:
Why: Sec. 541.059(b) protects the person who demonstrates the first continuous actual use of the name, word, symbol, device, or slogan.
In a Homeowners policy, neglect by the insured to use reasonable means to save property at and after a loss is:
Why: Neglect is listed among the exclusions; the insured must take reasonable steps to protect property, and damage from failing to do so is not covered.
An insurer cancels a homeowners policy for a permitted ground under §551.104(b). Under §551.104(e), the cancellation does not take effect until which date?
Why: §551.104(e) provides that cancellation under Subsection (b), (c), or (d) does not take effect until the 10th day after the date the insurer mails the cancellation notice to the insured.