Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Massachusetts exam you need 70%.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Massachusetts licenses Life producers and Accident & Health or Sickness producers as separate exams of 100 scored questions each (2 hours, 70% to pass); administration moves from Prometric to Pearson VUE on 22 July 2026. Each exam combines general insurance knowledge with Massachusetts insurance law (M.G.L. c.175 and related chapters). This bank covers the Massachusetts law for both lines plus the general insurance content.
You need 70%. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Massachusetts General Laws (c.175, 176 and 176A–176O) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Massachusetts bank contains 927 questions (general insurance plus Massachusetts law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
To be 'fully insured' for Social Security retirement benefits, a worker generally needs:
Why: Fully insured status requires 40 quarters of coverage (roughly 10 years of work in covered employment).
A policy loan taken against a life policy's cash value:
Why: Unpaid loan balance and interest are subtracted from the death benefit; loans are not taxable while the policy stays in force.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §2B, a covered policy form generally may not be issued unless its text achieves a minimum Flesch scale readability score of...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §2B requires that the text achieve a minimum Flesch scale readability score of fifty — therefore the first option is correct.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §3A, the commissioner is charged with...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §3A charges the commissioner with administering and enforcing the provisions of the chapter and related insurance laws — therefore the fourth option is correct.
A 50-year-old withdraws $10,000 of gain from a nonqualified deferred annuity. Besides ordinary income tax, the IRS penalty is:
Why: A premature distribution before 59½ incurs a 10% penalty: 10% × $10,000 = $1,000, on top of ordinary income tax on the gain.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §177B, an insurance adviser license, once issued, expires...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §177B provides that an insurance adviser license expires in three years from its date, unless sooner revoked or suspended — therefore the second option is correct.
In a proceeding under c.176D §6, the commissioner is empowered to...
Why: M.G.L. c.176D §6 gives the commissioner power to administer oaths, examine witnesses, and subpoena witnesses and documents.
A plan has a $1,500 deductible, 80/20 coinsurance, and a $4,000 out-of-pocket maximum. On a $30,000 bill, the insured pays:
Why: Deductible $1,500 + 20% of $28,500 = $7,200, but the $4,000 out-of-pocket maximum caps the insured's cost at $4,000.
Under c.175I §7, an investigative consumer report may NOT contain information designed to determine an individual's...
Why: M.G.L. c.175I §7(d) bars any information designed to determine sexual orientation, or AIDS/ARC counseling, from such reports.
Medicare Part B helps pay for:
Why: Part B covers physician services, outpatient care, durable medical equipment, and preventive services, typically paying 80% after the deductible.
'Unfair discrimination' in insurance means:
Why: Unfair discrimination is applying different rates or terms to insureds of the same class and equal risk; risk-based distinctions are permitted.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §110D, when an insured leaves the group covered by a group policy, coverage must continue for at least:
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §110D requires that a person leaving the group remain insured for a period of thirty-one days thereafter unless otherwise entitled to similar benefits — therefore 31 days.
M.G.L. c.176K §3(d) sets an annual Medicare supplement open enrollment period that runs each year from:
Why: M.G.L. c.176K §3(d) provides the required annual open enrollment period commences February first and ends March thirty-first — therefore February 1 to March 31.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §3A, if the commissioner concludes that an insurance law has been violated, the commissioner shall...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §3A directs the commissioner to report the facts to the attorney general or the proper district attorney, who shall cause the offender to be prosecuted — therefore the third option is correct.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §162H, an 'insurance producer' is defined as...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §162H defines an 'insurance producer' as a person required to be licensed under the laws of the commonwealth to sell, solicit or negotiate insurance — therefore the first option is correct.
An accelerated death benefit (living benefit) provision allows the insured to:
Why: An accelerated death benefit pays a portion of the face amount while living upon a qualifying terminal or chronic illness; it reduces the death benefit later.
The chief purpose of the disclosure documents required by 211 CMR 31 is to:
Why: 211 CMR 31 requires disclosure (Buyer's Guide and Policy Summary) to give prospective buyers information to compare policies and make informed purchasing decisions — therefore help buyers compare and make informed decisions.
A person insured under a group life policy wishes to control his coverage. Under M.G.L. c.175 §134C, subject to the policy terms he may:
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §134C lets an insured under a group life policy assign any or all incidents of ownership, including the right to designate a beneficiary, to have an individual policy issued, and to pay premiums — therefore assign incidents of ownership such as naming a beneficiary.
The federal Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) generally restricts the use of genetic information in:
Why: GINA limits how genetic information may be used in health coverage and employment, prohibiting discrimination based on genetic test results.
When a sale involves replacing an existing life policy, the producer must:
Why: Replacement rules require delivering a replacement notice/disclosure and following defined procedures.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §162M, an insurance producer license remains in effect...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §162M provides that a license remains in effect, unless revoked or suspended, as long as the §14 fee is paid and education requirements are met by the due date — therefore the second option is correct.
A plan has a $1,000 deductible and 60/40 coinsurance. On a $6,000 covered bill, the insured pays:
Why: Deductible $1,000 + 40% of the remaining $5,000 ($2,000) = $3,000.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §126, a life policy made payable to or for the benefit of a married woman:
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §126 provides such insurance shall enure to the married woman's separate use and benefit and that of her children, and bars a court or assignee from changing the beneficiary for the insured — therefore the proceeds enure to her separate use and benefit.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §180A, an insurer's 'domiciliary state' is the state in which the insurer...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §180A defines 'domiciliary state' as the state in which an insurer is incorporated or organized — therefore the second option is correct.
The Massachusetts regulation that sets standards for long-term care insurance, including the outline of coverage and nonforfeiture requirements, is:
Why: Long-term care insurance standards in Massachusetts are set out in 211 CMR 65.00 — therefore 211 CMR 65.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §2B, a covered policy form must be printed, except for tables, in type no smaller than...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §2B requires the form be printed, except for tables, in not less than ten point type, one point leaded — therefore the third option is correct.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §177O, a person maintaining an office in the commonwealth may not act as a reinsurance intermediary broker unless the person...?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §177O provides that a reinsurance intermediary broker maintaining an office in the commonwealth must be a licensed producer in the commonwealth — therefore the second option is correct.
Under M.G.L. c.175 §132H, generally no more than what percentage of a life company's separate-account assets may be invested in the stock or shares of any one corporation (subject to stated exceptions)?
Why: M.G.L. c.175 §132H limits investment to not more than ten per cent of all separate-account assets in the capital stock, certificates of participation, or shares of any one corporation, association, or trust (with exceptions for certain open-end diversified funds) — therefore 10%.
An applicant for disability income earns $100,000. The insurer offers a benefit replacing about 60% of income to:
Why: DI benefits are capped below full income (and are tax-free when individually paid) so the insured keeps an incentive to recover.
State guaranty association protection may NOT be:
Why: Using guaranty fund protection to induce a sale is prohibited; the fund exists to protect policyholders of insolvent insurers, within limits.