Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Tennessee exam you need 70% on each section.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Tennessee licenses Property producers and Casualty producers through Pearson VUE, each with a national section (50 questions) and a Tennessee-specific section (18 questions), requiring 70% on each section. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Tennessee law - the 25/50/25 compulsory auto financial-responsibility limits and uninsured-motorist coverage, fire and property provisions, cancellation and nonrenewal rules, the guaranty association, and workers compensation under Title 50.
You need 70% on each section. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Tennessee Code Annotated (Titles 56, 55 and 50) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Tennessee bank contains 956 questions (general insurance plus Tennessee law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
In a life insurance contract (by contrast with property), insurable interest must exist:
Why: Life insurance requires insurable interest only at policy inception, whereas property/casualty requires it at the time of loss.
When two policies cover the same loss and an 'other insurance' clause requires each to pay a share proportional to its limit, this is:
Why: Pro rata sharing divides the loss among insurers in proportion to each policy's limit relative to total coverage.
A producer doing financial planning will earn a commission on an insurance product sold to the client. Under T.C.A. § 56-6-125, the producer must disclose this:
Why: T.C.A. § 56-6-125(a)(2) requires disclosure before executing the agreement or soliciting the product — therefore disclosure must come first.
Under T.C.A. § 56-6-102, an insurance producer's "home state" is the state where the producer does what?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-6-102 defines 'home state' as the state where a producer maintains a principal place of residence or business and is licensed as a producer.
Custom furnishings or equipment installed in a pickup or van (e.g., custom murals, special carpeting) under the unendorsed PAP are:
Why: The PAP excludes custom furnishings or equipment in pickups and vans unless coverage is specifically added, often by endorsement.
Under the BPP, how far from the described premises is the standard coverage for business personal property in the open or in a vehicle?
Why: The BPP extends coverage to covered business personal property in the open (or in a vehicle) within 100 feet of the described premises.
Under T.C.A. § 56-6-113, deferred or renewal commissions may still be paid to a person who was what at the time of the sale?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-6-113(c) allows renewal or deferred commissions if the person was required to be licensed at the time of the sale and was licensed at that time.
A reciprocal insurer is best described as:
Why: A reciprocal or interinsurance exchange is an unincorporated association of subscribers who exchange insurance among themselves, administered by an attorney-in-fact.
Which Causes of Loss form provides the narrowest coverage, listing named perils such as fire, lightning, windstorm, and vandalism?
Why: The Basic Causes of Loss form covers a limited list of named perils and provides the narrowest protection of the three forms.
The policy period condition specifies:
Why: The policy period sets the effective and expiration dates/times defining when coverage applies.
Under T.C.A. § 56-6-110, an attorney may hold a limited lines title insurance license only when acting as a title agent in what capacity?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-6-110(6) allows title insurance as a limited line for a licensed attorney who acts as a title agent as an ancillary part of the attorney's practice of law.
Under T.C.A. § 56-7-1206, the uninsured motorist provision may NOT do which of the following?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-7-1206(c) provides the UM provision shall not require arbitration of any claim — therefore it may not require arbitration.
Under T.C.A. § 56-8-105, after proof of loss statements are completed, an insurer commits an unfair claims practice if it fails to:
Why: T.C.A. § 56-8-105(7) requires affirming or denying coverage within a reasonable time after proof of loss is completed — therefore that failure is the violation.
Which federal law would a producer most likely consult to determine whether a previously convicted individual may lawfully work in the insurance business?
Why: 18 U.S.C. 1033 and 1034 govern whether persons convicted of crimes involving dishonesty may engage in the business of insurance and the penalties for violations.
Insurers require minimum 'underlying limits' for an umbrella because:
Why: Umbrellas require specified underlying limits; if the insured fails to maintain them, the umbrella pays only as if the required underlying limits existed.
Under T.C.A. § 56-12-107, to the extent of its obligation on covered claims, the association is:
Why: T.C.A. § 56-12-107(a)(2) deems the association the insurer to the extent of its obligation, with the insurer's rights and duties — therefore that is correct.
Under the PAP, fire damage to the covered auto while parked in a garage is covered under:
Why: Fire is a peril insured under Other Than Collision (comprehensive) coverage in Part D.
An experience modification factor (mod) below 1.00 (e.g., 0.85) indicates that an employer:
Why: A mod below 1.00 is a credit mod, reflecting better-than-expected losses and reducing premium; a mod above 1.00 is a debit mod that increases premium.
Which Homeowners form is the Broad Form, covering the dwelling on a named-perils (broad) basis?
Why: HO-2 is the Broad Form, insuring the dwelling and personal property on a named-perils (broad form) basis.
Under the NFIP Dwelling Form, building coverage and contents coverage:
Why: NFIP building and contents coverages carry separate limits, and contents coverage must be purchased separately from building coverage.
Which construction type is considered the MOST resistant to fire?
Why: Fire-resistive construction uses materials like reinforced concrete and protected steel and carries the lowest fire risk classification.
An insurer ends a producer's contract for reasons unrelated to § 56-6-112. Under T.C.A. § 56-6-117, notice to the commissioner is due within what time?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-6-117(b) requires notice within thirty (30) days even for termination without cause — the timing is the same as for-cause terminations.
A technology consultant gives faulty advice causing a client a large financial loss (no bodily injury or property damage). The proper coverage is:
Why: Pure financial loss from negligent professional advice is covered by professional E&O, not the CGL which requires BI/PD (or a covered offense).
The Homeowners Policy program differs from the Dwelling Policy primarily because it:
Why: Homeowners policies are package policies bundling Section I property coverages with Section II liability coverages, whereas the basic Dwelling Policy is monoline property.
The right of an insurer, after paying a claim, to recover from the party who caused the loss is:
Why: Subrogation transfers the insured's right of recovery against a responsible third party to the insurer after it pays the claim.
A products liability claim alleges a manufactured part injured a user three years after sale. This is covered under the CGL as:
Why: Injury from a sold product is a products liability claim subject to the Products-Completed Operations Aggregate.
The RETROACTIVE DATE on a claims-made policy:
Why: The retroactive date sets the earliest injury/damage date that can be covered; losses occurring before it are excluded.
An SR-22 is best described as:
Why: An SR-22 is a financial responsibility certificate the insurer files to confirm a high-risk driver maintains the state's required liability insurance.
A liable driver's insurer fails eight months after the crash. Under T.C.A. § 56-7-1203, the injured insured's UM insolvency protection?
Why: T.C.A. § 56-7-1203 provides protection where the tortfeasor's insurer becomes insolvent within one year of the accident, and eight months qualifies — therefore it applies.
Which statement about Part Two (Employers Liability) limits and Part One is correct?
Why: Part One has no policy limit (the statute controls benefits), while Part Two carries stated dollar limits for the three employers liability exposures.