Revise with instant feedback: the moment you pick an answer you see whether it was right, with the written, source-cited explanation. Untimed — ideal before you sit a mock exam. Questions you miss keep coming back until you know them.
Exam-day conditions: no feedback until you submit, each module scored separately like the real test, with a full question-by-question review at the end.
Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Indiana exam you need 70% on each section.
The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.
✓ One purchase, use it on up to 3 of your devices · no subscription · no account needed
Indiana licenses Property and Casualty producers through Pearson VUE, with a national section and an Indiana state-law section, requiring 70% to pass. This bank covers the national property & casualty material plus Indiana law - the 25/50/25 compulsory auto financial-responsibility limits and uninsured/underinsured motorist coverage, the guaranty association, surplus lines, residential and commercial cancellation/nonrenewal, and workers compensation (Title 22).
You need 70% on each section. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.
No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Indiana Code (Titles 27, 9 and 22) for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.
The full Indiana bank contains 958 questions (general insurance plus Indiana law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample gives you about 20 questions per module.
$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.
Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.
No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.
A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
A P&C producer is criminally charged. Under IC 27-1-15.6-17 the producer must report the prosecution within thirty (30) days after:
Why: IC 27-1-15.6-17 requires reporting a criminal prosecution not more than thirty (30) days after an initial pretrial hearing date — therefore that is correct.
Under IC 27-1-31-2, a commercial cancellation for a substantial change in the scale of risk requires notice at least:
Why: IC 27-1-31-2(b)(1) requires at least forty-five days' notice for cancellation based on a substantial change in risk.
A company holding a certificate of authority appoints a new principal officer; under IC 27-1-3-20 it must notify the commissioner within:
Why: IC 27-1-3-20 requires notice of every new director or principal officer within thirty (30) days — therefore 30 days is correct.
A policy was placed by a licensed independent producer. Under IC 27-7-6-6, before the insured receives the nonrenewal notice, the producer must be notified at least:
Why: IC 27-7-6-6(b) requires notice of intent not to renew to the independent producer at least 10 days before notice to the named insured — therefore 10 days earlier.
The element of negligence requiring an unbroken chain of events linking the act to the injury is called:
Why: Proximate cause is the direct, uninterrupted causal connection between the negligent act and the resulting injury.
Under IC 27-7-12-6, after a residential policy has been in force more than 60 days, a permitted cancellation ground is:
Why: IC 27-7-12-6(2) lists discovery of fraud or material misrepresentation as a permitted post-60-day cancellation ground.
Charging different premiums between individuals of the same class and equal risk, without actuarial justification, is defined by IC 27-4-1-4 as:
Why: IC 27-4-1-4(a)(7) defines unfair discrimination in premiums or rates between individuals of the same class.
Filing a false statement of an insurer's financial condition with intent to deceive is enumerated by IC 27-4-1-4 as:
Why: IC 27-4-1-4(a)(5) lists filing or publishing a false statement of financial condition with intent to deceive.
Under IC 27-1-15.6-28, a license suspended for a court child-support order is reinstated only when the commissioner receives:
Why: IC 27-1-15.6-28 bars reinstatement until the commissioner receives an order allowing reinstatement from the issuing court — therefore that is correct.
Lloyd's of London is best described as:
Why: Lloyd's is not an insurer itself but a marketplace where syndicates of members assume insurance risk.
If an injured worker's average weekly wage is $900, the IC 22-3-3-8 temporary total disability benefit (66 2/3%) is:
Why: IC 22-3-3-8 pays 66 2/3% of AWW; $900 x 2/3 = $600 — therefore $600 (subject to statutory maximums).
Many WC laws include a 'retroactive' provision tied to the waiting period. This means that if a disability lasts beyond a specified time, the worker:
Why: Under a retroactive provision, if the disability continues beyond a set number of days, the worker is paid wage benefits retroactively, including for the initial waiting period.
Under IC 27-7-6-3, a policy written for a term longer than one year may be terminated at an annual anniversary on how many days' notice?
Why: IC 27-7-6-3 treats a policy longer than one year as successive one-year terms terminable at anniversary on 20 days' notice — therefore 20 days.
An insurer moves an insured to an affiliate for future coverage. Under IC 27-7-12-4, no nonrenewal notice is required if:
Why: IC 27-7-12-4(c) waives nonrenewal notice when the insured is transferred to an affiliate and the transfer gives the same or broader coverage.
An insured who intentionally exaggerates or fabricates a claim presents which hazard?
Why: A moral hazard arises from dishonesty or character flaws that make a loss more likely, such as fraud or arson for profit.
The difference between an umbrella policy and a simple excess liability policy is that an umbrella:
Why: Excess liability merely adds limits over an underlying policy following its terms; an umbrella both adds limits and can broaden coverage beyond the underlying policies.
An admitted (authorized) insurer is one that:
Why: An admitted or authorized insurer has been granted a certificate of authority by the state insurance department to transact business there.
A worker loses an arm above the elbow. Under IC 22-3-3-10, the scheduled permanent impairment equals:
Why: IC 22-3-3-10(f)(1) sets loss of the arm above the elbow at 50 degrees of permanent impairment — therefore 50 degrees.
Under IC 27-1-15.6-3, a person may sell, solicit, or negotiate P&C insurance in Indiana only if the person:
Why: IC 27-1-15.6-3 requires a person to be licensed for the line of authority before selling, soliciting, or negotiating insurance — therefore that is correct.
Under IC 22-3-3-7, the first seven calendar days of disability are compensated only if the disability continues longer than:
Why: IC 22-3-3-7(a) pays the first seven days only if the disability continues longer than 21 days — therefore 21 days.
Under IC 27-4-1-6, if the person knew or reasonably should have known of the violation, the maximum penalty per act rises to:
Why: IC 27-4-1-6(a)(1) raises the maximum to $50,000 per act where the person knew or should have known.
Under IC 27-1-3-7, the Indiana Department of Insurance may promulgate rules for which purpose?
Why: IC 27-1-3-7 lets the department prescribe methods and standards used in making examinations — therefore examination standards is correct.
Which statement about strict liability is TRUE?
Why: Strict liability imposes responsibility without requiring proof of negligence, based on the inherently dangerous nature of the activity or product defect.
Under the FCRA, when an insurer denies an application or charges a higher premium based on a consumer report, it must provide the consumer with:
Why: The FCRA requires an adverse action notice that informs the consumer of the action, identifies the reporting agency, and explains the right to obtain a free copy of the report and dispute it.
Under IC 27-1-15.8-3, surplus lines qualification is available for kinds of insurance in:
Why: IC 27-1-15.8-3(a) authorizes surplus lines qualification in Class 2 and Class 3 of IC 27-1-5-1.
Job classification codes in workers' compensation are used to:
Why: Classification codes group occupations by similar hazard/loss potential so that a rate reflecting that exposure can be applied to the payroll in each class.
Under the Business Auto Coverage Form, the covered "auto" definition generally includes:
Why: A covered auto is a land motor vehicle, trailer, or semitrailer designed for travel on public roads, including attached machinery, but not most mobile equipment.
In the Homeowners policy, the term 'insured location' generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
Why: Insured location includes the residence premises, newly acquired residences, vacant land, and certain other personal-use premises, but not a separately rented commercial property.
A delivery driver uses his personal car to deliver pizzas for a restaurant. Under his unendorsed PAP, a liability claim during a delivery is likely:
Why: Using a vehicle to carry property/persons for a fee (delivery for hire) can trigger the livery/business-use exclusion, so the claim may not be covered without commercial coverage.
Under IC 27-7-5-2, uninsured and underinsured motorist coverage may be rejected by the insured only:
Why: IC 27-7-5-2(b) permits rejection of UM/UIM only in writing by the named insured — therefore a written rejection.