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Connecticut Property & Casualty Insurance License, Practice Exams

Connecticut Property and Casualty producer licensing (Pearson VUE, offered combined or as separate Property and Casualty exams). National P&C insurance knowledge plus Connecticut law - the Commissioner and Department, producer licensing, the Connecticut Unfair Insurance Practices Act, the guaranty association, cancellation, nonrenewal and binders, the standard fire policy and homeowners rules, and automobile minimum coverages, uninsured/underinsured motorist and the residual market - authored from public-domain statutes.
Content last updated 29 October 2026

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Each module is scored separately here so you know exactly where you stand. To pass the real Connecticut exam you need a pass on the Pearson VUE score report — Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark.

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Unlock the full question bank

The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions for each exam on this page, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 189 questions in all. The full bank contains every question — general insurance plus state law — with written, statute-cited explanations. $49, one time, lifetime access on up to 3 devices — every state and line we add later included.

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Score history

The real exam: key facts

Delivered byPearson VUE
Official examProperty and Casualty Producer (12-CT-04)
Questions130 scored + 15 pretest (general 100 + 10, Connecticut 30 + 5)
Time2 hours 30 minutes
Passing score70%; score report shows pass only, no numeric score
Exam fee$105 (single-line Property 12-CT-19 or Casualty 12-CT-20: $65)
Pre-licensing or eligibilityRequired: 40 hours for combined Property & Casualty (20 hours for a single line); certificate or waiver letter needed at the test centre
Book your examwsr.pearsonvue.com/testtaker/signin/SignInPage/CTINS?locale=en_US

Checked 11 October 2026 from the official sources below. Rules and fees change, so confirm with Pearson VUE before you book.

Official sources

Which Connecticut exam is this for?

This page practises 2 Connecticut exams. Choose yours at the top of the page and the practice tests switch to its length, topic weights and pass mark. Your progress on each question carries across.

ExamOfficial examScored questionsTimePass mark
Property & CasualtyProperty and Casualty Producer (12-CT-04)130 scored + 15 pretest (general 100 + 10, Connecticut 30 + 5)2 hours 30 minutes70%; score report shows pass only, no numeric score
Personal Lines12-CT-18 · Personal Lines Producer105 (75 general + 30 Connecticut)2 hours70%
Official sources

Frequently asked questions

How is the Connecticut producer licensing exam structured?

Connecticut tests through Pearson VUE and offers both shapes. The combined Property and Casualty Producer exam has 100 scored general questions plus 30 scored Connecticut questions (with 15 unscored pretest items); the standalone Property and Casualty exams have 50 general plus 25 Connecticut each. The Connecticut section is nested: 18 questions on statutes common to all lines, 3 pertinent to insurance generally, 4 property-only and 5 casualty-only. Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage anywhere in the candidate handbook, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. This bank covers the Connecticut law plus the national property & casualty content.

What score do I need to pass?

You need a pass on the Pearson VUE score report — Connecticut reports pass or fail only and publishes no percentage, so this practice exam scores you against 70% as a conservative benchmark. Revise each module to that level in Revision Mode, then run the full exam simulation in Exam Mode before your test date.

Are these real exam questions?

No vendor publishes the live exam. Every question here is original, written to the official content outline and grounded in public-domain sources — including the Connecticut General Statutes, Title 38a for the state-law questions, with the statute section cited in each explanation.

How many practice questions are included?

The full Connecticut bank contains 1225 questions (general insurance plus Connecticut law), with written, source-cited explanations. The free sample is one full practice exam's worth of questions for each exam on this page, with at least 5 in every module so you can revise each topic: 189 questions in all.

What does access cost?

$49, one time, for lifetime access — and it includes every state and line we add later, at no extra charge. No subscription.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices, for example your laptop, phone and tablet, so you can practise wherever you are. Your progress is saved on each device.

Do I need to create an account?

No. The practice tests run in your browser with no signup. Your score history is saved on your own device.

Can I practise for the Connecticut Personal Lines exam here?

Yes. Choose Personal Lines at the top of this page and the practice tests switch to the Connecticut exam (12-CT-18): 105 scored questions (75 general and 30 on Connecticut law), 2 hours, pass mark 70%. Revision Mode, Exam Mode and your score history then follow that exam, and the same purchase unlocks it.

What topics does the Connecticut Property & Casualty Insurance License question bank cover?

It is organised into 18 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: P&C — General Insurance Concepts, P&C — Insurance Basics, P&C — Dwelling & Homeowners, P&C — Personal & Commercial Auto, P&C — Commercial Property, BOP & Marine, P&C — Commercial General Liability & Specialty, P&C — Workers' Compensation, P&C — Other Lines, Flood & Federal Regulation, Connecticut — Insurance Commissioner & Department, Connecticut — Producer Licensing, Connecticut — Unfair Insurance Practices (CUIPA), Connecticut — Definitions, Authority & Certificate of Authority, Connecticut — Property & Casualty Guaranty Association, Connecticut — Consumer Affairs, Hearings, Penalties & Fraud, Connecticut — Cancellation, Nonrenewal & Binders, Connecticut — Standard Fire Policy, Homeowners & Fire Loss, Connecticut — Automobile Insurance: Minimum Coverages & Financial Responsibility and Connecticut — Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist, Rates & Residual Market. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.

When was this question bank last updated?

Last updated 29 October 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.

Sample Connecticut Property & Casualty Insurance License practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and explanations. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

The portion of the rate intended to cover the insurer's expected losses and loss-adjustment expenses is the:

  1. Expense loading
  2. Pure premium / loss cost ✓
  3. Profit factor
  4. Reserve

Why: The pure premium (loss cost) component reflects expected claim costs; loading is added for expenses and profit.

What advance notice does 38a-343(a) require before cancellation of a motor vehicle policy to which 38a-342 applies, and what are the two shorter periods?

  1. At least thirty days; but at least fifteen days where cancellation is for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy, and at least ten days where it is for nonpayment of any other premium or for material misrepresentation by the named insured in obtaining coverage under the policy.
  2. At least forty-five days; but at least fifteen days where cancellation is for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy, and at least ten days where it is for nonpayment of any other premium, each of the two shorter notices being accompanied by a statement specifying the reason for it. ✓
  3. At least forty-five days; but at least twenty days where cancellation is for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy, and at least fifteen days where it is for nonpayment of any other premium, no notice at all being required where the policy has been in effect for less than sixty days.
  4. At least sixty days; but at least fifteen days where cancellation is for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy, and at least ten days where it is for nonpayment of any other premium, the longer period matching the notice required to refuse to renew the policy under 38a-323(a)(1).

Why: 38a-343(a) makes no notice of cancellation effective unless delivered or sent to the named insured, and any third party designated under 38a-323a, BY REGISTERED MAIL, CERTIFIED MAIL, MAIL EVIDENCED BY A CERTIFICATE OF MAILING OR, IF AGREED ..., BY ELECTRONIC MEANS, AT LEAST FORTY-FIVE DAYS BEFORE THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF CANCELLATION, EXCEPT THAT (1) WHERE CANCELLATION IS FOR NONPAYMENT OF THE FIRST PREMIUM ON A NEW POLICY, AT LEAST FIFTEEN DAYS' NOTICE ... ACCOMPANIED BY THE REASON FOR CANCELLATION SHALL BE GIVEN, AND (2) WHERE CANCELLATION IS FOR NONPAYMENT OF ANY OTHER PREMIUM, AT LEAST TEN DAYS' NOTICE ... SHALL BE GIVEN. For a policy IN EFFECT FOR LESS THAN SIXTY DAYS the same periods apply except that the ten-day group also picks up MATERIAL MISREPRESENTATION. A notice for nonpayment of the first premium on a new policy MAY BE RETROACTIVE TO THE EFFECTIVE DATE OF SUCH POLICY, provided the fifteen days were given and the premium was not paid in that period.

After a hearing the commissioner finds that a person has violated 38a-816. What monetary penalties may the commissioner order under 38a-817(b)?

  1. Not more than five thousand dollars for each act or violation, subject to an aggregate of twenty-five thousand dollars; or, where the person knew or reasonably should have known of the violation, not more than fifty thousand dollars for each act, subject to an aggregate of two hundred fifty thousand dollars in any twelve-month period.
  2. Not more than five thousand dollars for each act or violation, subject to an aggregate of fifty thousand dollars; or, where the person knew or reasonably should have known of the violation, not more than twenty-five thousand dollars for each act, subject to an aggregate of two hundred fifty thousand dollars in any six-month period. ✓
  3. Not more than fifty thousand dollars for each act or violation without any aggregate limit, whether or not the person knew or reasonably should have known of the violation, the person's state of knowledge going only to whether the commissioner may also suspend or revoke the person's licence for the violation.
  4. Not more than twenty-five thousand dollars for each act or violation, subject to an aggregate of fifty thousand dollars in any six-month period, together with restitution of any sums obtained in violation of the act, which the commissioner must order in every case in which a monetary penalty is imposed.

Why: 38a-817(b) requires written findings and a cease and desist order, and where the practice violates 38a-816 permits the commissioner to order (1) PAYMENT OF A MONETARY PENALTY OF NOT MORE THAN FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION BUT NOT TO EXCEED AN AGGREGATE PENALTY OF FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS UNLESS THE PERSON KNEW OR REASONABLY SHOULD HAVE KNOWN THAT THE PERSON WAS IN VIOLATION ..., IN WHICH CASE THE PENALTY SHALL BE NOT MORE THAN TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR EACH ACT OR VIOLATION BUT NOT TO EXCEED AN AGGREGATE PENALTY OF TWO HUNDRED FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS IN ANY SIX-MONTH PERIOD; (2) SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF THE PERSON'S LICENSE IF THE PERSON KNEW OR REASONABLY SHOULD HAVE KNOWN ...; OR (3) RESTITUTION OF ANY SUMS SHOWN TO HAVE BEEN OBTAINED IN VIOLATION. Restitution is discretionary, not mandatory, and the six-month window attaches only to the two hundred fifty thousand dollar aggregate.

Show more sample questions with answers & explanations

A clothing store's stock is destroyed by fire. The BPP with the Special Causes of Loss form is in force. Coverage applies because:

  1. The Basic form lists fire as a named peril and the Special form adopts that same list
  2. A flood set off the fire, and the ensuing loss provision restores the water damage
  3. Fire is not excluded under the open-perils form ✓
  4. Theft is the cause of loss, and stock is insured against theft on all three forms

Why: Under the open-perils Special form, fire is a covered cause of loss because it is a risk of direct physical loss that is not excluded.

A physical damage dispute is referred to arbitration under 38a-9(b). What must the insurance company do on being notified of the referral, and what is the effect on the claimant?

  1. It must pay the claimant the undisputed amount of the claim upon written notification from the department that the complaint has been referred to arbitration, and that payment does not affect any right of the claimant to pursue the disputed amount. ✓
  2. It must pay the claimant the undisputed amount of the claim upon written notification from the department that the complaint has been referred to arbitration, and that payment is in full and final settlement of the claim unless the claimant expressly reserves the right to pursue the disputed amount in writing before accepting it.
  3. It must deposit the undisputed amount of the claim with the department pending the outcome of the arbitration, the money being paid over to the claimant with the arbitrator's award if the decision favours the claimant and returned to the company if it does not favour the claimant.
  4. It need pay nothing until the arbitrator has rendered a written decision, at which point it must pay the whole of the award together with interest at fifteen per cent per year running from the date on which the claimant first presented the claim to the company for payment under the policy.

Why: 38a-9(b)(1) provides that THE INSURANCE COMPANY SHALL PAY THE CLAIMANT THE UNDISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM UPON WRITTEN NOTIFICATION FROM THE DEPARTMENT THAT THE COMPLAINT HAS BEEN REFERRED TO ARBITRATION. SUCH PAYMENT SHALL NOT AFFECT ANY RIGHT OF THE CLAIMANT TO PURSUE THE DISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM. It is not an accord and satisfaction, and the date of that payment matters later: 38a-9(b)(2) runs the fifteen per cent interest on any award RETROACTIVE TO THE DATE OF PAYMENT FOR THE UNDISPUTED AMOUNT OF THE CLAIM.

An insured damages a friend's mailbox and fence while backing out of a driveway in the covered auto. This is covered under:

  1. Part A — Property Damage Liability ✓
  2. Part D — Collision
  3. Part B — Medical Payments
  4. Part C — Uninsured Motorists

Why: Damage to another person's property (mailbox, fence) for which the insured is legally liable is covered under Part A property damage liability.

Personal Injury Protection (PIP), where applicable, typically covers:

  1. Comprehensive damage to the insured's own vehicle from theft, fire, hail, or falling objects
  2. Liability to third parties for bodily injury and property damage the insured causes
  3. Property damage to another person's vehicle or fence caused by the insured
  4. The insured's medical expenses, lost wages, and certain other economic losses regardless of fault ✓

Why: PIP, common in no-fault states, pays the insured's own medical, wage loss, and related economic benefits without regard to fault.

In most liability policies, defense costs are:

  1. Paid in addition to the limit of liability ✓
  2. Deducted from the limit of liability
  3. Paid by the insured
  4. Never covered

Why: Defense costs are typically paid in addition to (outside) the policy limits in standard liability forms, though some forms erode limits.

A FAIR Plan is designed primarily to:

  1. Offer discounted automobile insurance to drivers who have gone five years without a claim
  2. Make property insurance available to applicants who cannot obtain it in the voluntary market ✓
  3. Insure state and municipal buildings that private carriers will not write
  4. Provide subsidized flood insurance to homeowners in coastal counties

Why: FAIR (Fair Access to Insurance Requirements) Plans are state residual market mechanisms that provide property insurance to risks unable to buy it in the standard voluntary market.

How do 38a-1(1) and 38a-1(19) define an AFFILIATE and a SUBSIDIARY?

  1. An affiliate is a person that holds ten per cent or more of the voting securities of another person, directly or through intermediaries; a subsidiary is a person of which another person holds more than fifty per cent of the voting securities, directly or indirectly.
  2. An affiliate is any member of the same holding company system as another person, whether or not either controls the other; a subsidiary is an affiliate whose whole issued capital stock is held by the specified person directly.
  3. An affiliate is a person under common management with another person, whether or not there is any common ownership; a subsidiary is a person whose directors are appointed by the specified person or by its own subsidiaries.
  4. An affiliate directly, or indirectly through intermediaries, controls, is controlled by or is under common control with another person; a subsidiary of a person is an affiliate that person controls, directly or through intermediaries. ✓

Why: 38a-1(1): affiliate or affiliated means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by or is under common control with another person. 38a-1(19): subsidiary of a specified person means an affiliate controlled by the person directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries.

An insured has a claims-made CGL with a retroactive date of 1/1/2020. An injury occurred in 2019 but the claim is first made in 2024 while the policy is in force. The claim is:

  1. Covered under the extended reporting period tail, which reaches back before the retroactive date
  2. Covered, because a claims-made form responds to any claim first made during the policy period
  3. Covered as a Supplementary Payment, since defense costs sit outside the retroactive date
  4. Not covered, because the injury occurred before the retroactive date ✓

Why: Even though the claim is made during the policy period, the injury predates the retroactive date, so it is not covered.

What does 38a-311 permit the commissioner to do in connection with the standard fire insurance policy?

  1. Approve forms of supplemental contract and extended coverage endorsement covering perils in addition to those covered by the standard fire policy, but not to permit any alteration to the arrangement of the first page of the form, which 38a-306 requires to be printed exactly as it appears in the form on file in the commissioner's office.
  2. Approve supplemental contracts and extended coverage endorsements adding perils to the standard fire policy, approve their use with it, and approve a rearranged first page listing the amounts, rates and premiums for the basic and additional coverages. ✓
  3. Approve a wholly separate standard form for use by companies writing extended coverage, the form set out in 38a-307 being confined to policies insuring against the perils of fire, lightning and removal from premises endangered by those perils and no others.
  4. Approve, on the application of two or more insurers, a combination standard form of fire insurance policy under which the insurers are severally liable for the full amount of the loss and service on any one of them is deemed service on all of them.

Why: 38a-311 provides that THE COMMISSIONER MAY APPROVE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF SUPPLEMENTAL CONTRACT OR CONTRACTS OR EXTENDED COVERAGE ENDORSEMENTS AND ADDITIONAL CONTRACTS OR ENDORSEMENTS, IN ADDITION TO THE PERILS COVERED UNDER A STANDARD FIRE INSURANCE POLICY, AND THEIR USE IN CONNECTION WITH A STANDARD FIRE INSURANCE POLICY, and that THE FIRST PAGE OF THE POLICY MAY, IN FORM APPROVED BY THE COMMISSIONER, BE REARRANGED TO PROVIDE SPACE FOR THE LISTING OF AMOUNTS OF INSURANCE, RATES AND PREMIUMS. The combination form, with insurers severally liable and service on one deemed service on all, is 38a-310, a different section.

An insured runs a small in-home daycare for several children. The appropriate way to address the liability and incidental property exposure is the:

  1. Mortgage clause, which extends the policy's protection to everyone lawfully on the premises
  2. Home Day Care / business pursuits-type endorsement ✓
  3. Inflation guard endorsement, raising the limits as the number of children enrolled grows
  4. Personal Injury endorsement, which covers bodily injury to children left in the insured's care

Why: A home day care endorsement (a form of permitted incidental occupancy/business endorsement) addresses the liability and limited property exposure of running a daycare from the home.

What does the association owe on a covered claim for UNEARNED PREMIUM under 38a-841(a)(1)(A)?

  1. The whole of the unearned premium on any policy, subject to a maximum of two thousand dollars for each policy written by the insolvent insurer and in force at insolvency.
  2. One-half of the unearned premium on any policy, subject to a maximum of two thousand dollars per policy, that being the whole of the obligation for unearned premium. ✓
  3. One-half of the unearned premium on any policy, with no monetary ceiling, the hundred dollar deductible in the following subparagraph applying to the balance.
  4. The whole of the unearned premium calculated pro rata to the date of the order of liquidation, subject to the same per-claim ceiling that applies to other covered claims under the following subparagraph.

Why: 38a-841(a)(1)(A) limits the obligation WITH RESPECT TO COVERED CLAIMS FOR UNEARNED PREMIUMS, TO ONE-HALF OF THE UNEARNED PREMIUM ON ANY POLICY, SUBJECT TO A MAXIMUM OF TWO THOUSAND DOLLARS PER POLICY. Both limbs bite: the halving and the two thousand dollar cap. The one hundred dollar deductible in subparagraph (B) applies to claims OTHER than unearned premium.

What does 38a-316b require of an insurer writing homeowners cover on a residential dwelling?

  1. To offer a premium discount, based on sound actuarial principles, to any homeowner who submits proof of installation of permanent storm shutters or impact-resistant glass. ✓
  2. To offer a premium discount of at least five per cent to any homeowner who submits proof of installation of permanent storm shutters, impact-resistant glass or a roof meeting a standard the commissioner prescribes by regulation.
  3. To inspect the dwelling on request and advise the homeowner what mitigation measures would reduce the premium, the insurer being free to decide afterwards whether to grant any reduction at all.
  4. To offer a premium discount to any homeowner in a coastal area who installs permanent storm shutters, the requirement not extending to dwellings situated inland from the coastal boundary.

Why: 38a-316b requires each insurer that delivers, issues for delivery, renews, amends or endorses a homeowners policy for a residential dwelling to OFFER A PREMIUM DISCOUNT ON ANY SUCH POLICY TO ANY HOMEOWNER WHO SUBMITS TO SUCH INSURER PROOF OF INSTALLATION OF PERMANENT STORM SHUTTERS OR IMPACT-RESISTANT GLASS ON HIS OR HER DWELLING AS A MEANS OF MITIGATING LOSS FROM HURRICANES OR OTHER SEVERE STORMS, and provides that SUCH DISCOUNT SHALL BE BASED ON SOUND ACTUARIAL PRINCIPLES. No fixed percentage is prescribed.

A mobile-home policy is most similar to which standard form, with endorsements addressing the unique nature of the dwelling?

  1. A commercial package policy
  2. A surety bond
  3. A homeowners policy ✓
  4. A workers compensation policy

Why: Mobile-home coverage is generally written as a modified homeowners policy with endorsements addressing transportation, tie-downs, and the structure's mobility.

With auto liability split limits of 50/100/25, the maximum total paid for bodily injury to all persons in one accident is:

  1. $25,000
  2. $100,000 ✓
  3. $150,000
  4. $50,000

Why: The second number (100) is the per-accident bodily injury limit: $100,000.

Subsection (h) of 38a-8, added in 2023, gives the commissioner a duty unrelated to enforcement. What is it?

  1. To publish an annual consumer guide comparing the premiums of the ten largest writers of each line of insurance in the state.
  2. To promote the development and growth of, and employment opportunities within, the insurance industry in the state. ✓
  3. To administer the state's health insurance exchange in cooperation with the Commissioner of Social Services.
  4. To report to the Governor each year on the number of insurance jobs lost to companies relocating outside the state.

Why: 38a-8(h): the commissioner shall promote the development and growth of, and employment opportunities within, the insurance industry in the state.

How does 38a-363(e) define a private passenger motor vehicle, and what does that definition exclude?

  1. It covers private passenger and station-wagon type automobiles and camper-type motor vehicles only, and it excludes a truck-type motor vehicle of any load capacity however it is registered, a motorcycle, a high-mileage-type motor vehicle and any vehicle with a commercial registration as defined in section 14-1, whatever the use to which the owner of it actually puts it.
  2. It covers private passenger and station-wagon type automobiles, camper-type and high-mileage-type vehicles, a truck-type vehicle of fifteen hundred pounds load capacity or less registered as a passenger or passenger and commercial vehicle or used for farming, and a commercially registered vehicle; it excludes a motorcycle and a public or livery conveyance. ✓
  3. It covers any motor vehicle registered in this state and principally garaged here, including a motorcycle and a vehicle used as a public or livery conveyance, and excludes only a truck-type vehicle with a load capacity of more than fifteen hundred pounds that is not used for farming purposes.
  4. It covers private passenger and station-wagon type automobiles, camper-type and high-mileage-type vehicles and a truck-type vehicle of fifteen hundred pounds load capacity or less; it excludes a vehicle with a commercial registration, a motorcycle and a vehicle used as a public or livery conveyance.

Why: 38a-363(e) defines PRIVATE PASSENGER MOTOR VEHICLE as a (1) PRIVATE PASSENGER TYPE AUTOMOBILE; (2) STATION-WAGON-TYPE AUTOMOBILE; (3) CAMPER-TYPE MOTOR VEHICLE; (4) HIGH-MILEAGE-TYPE MOTOR VEHICLE; (5) TRUCK-TYPE MOTOR VEHICLE WITH A LOAD CAPACITY OF FIFTEEN HUNDRED POUNDS OR LESS, REGISTERED AS A PASSENGER MOTOR VEHICLE ... OR AS A PASSENGER AND COMMERCIAL MOTOR VEHICLE ... OR USED FOR FARMING PURPOSES; OR (6) A VEHICLE WITH A COMMERCIAL REGISTRATION, and provides that IT DOES NOT INCLUDE A MOTORCYCLE OR MOTOR VEHICLE USED AS A PUBLIC OR LIVERY CONVEYANCE. The commercially registered vehicle is INSIDE the definition; the motorcycle and the livery vehicle are outside it.

In insurance, exposure refers to:

  1. The maximum limit of liability shown on the declarations page for that coverage
  2. The amount the insured must pay out of pocket before the insurer responds
  3. A unit of measure, such as $100 of value or one vehicle, used to set the rate charged
  4. A condition or situation that presents a possibility of loss, whether or not it occurs ✓

Why: Exposure is a condition presenting a possibility of loss; it may or may not result in an actual loss.

38a-816(7) requires a record of complaints. What must the record show, and what counts as a complaint?

  1. Every complaint received during the preceding calendar year, with the total number, the classification by line of insurance, the nature and disposition of each and the time taken to process each; a complaint is any written or oral communication primarily expressing a grievance about the person or its policies.
  2. Every complaint received since the date of the last examination that the Insurance Department has referred to the person, with the nature and disposition of each and the time taken to process each; a complaint is any written communication from the department's Consumer Affairs Division requesting a response from the person.
  3. Every complaint received since the date of the last examination, with the total number and the classification by line of insurance only, the nature and disposition of individual complaints being confidential; a complaint is any written communication primarily expressing a grievance about the handling of a claim.
  4. Every complaint received since the date of the last examination, with the total number, the classification by line of insurance, the nature and disposition of each and the time taken to process each; a complaint is any written communication primarily expressing a grievance. ✓

Why: 38a-816(7) makes it an unfair practice to fail TO MAINTAIN COMPLETE RECORD OF ALL THE COMPLAINTS WHICH IT HAS RECEIVED SINCE THE DATE OF ITS LAST EXAMINATION, and requires that THIS RECORD SHALL INDICATE THE TOTAL NUMBER OF COMPLAINTS, THEIR CLASSIFICATION BY LINE OF INSURANCE, THE NATURE OF EACH COMPLAINT, THE DISPOSITION OF THESE COMPLAINTS, AND THE TIME IT TOOK TO PROCESS EACH COMPLAINT. FOR PURPOSES OF THIS SUBDIVISION COMPLAINT MEANS ANY WRITTEN COMMUNICATION PRIMARILY EXPRESSING A GRIEVANCE. Written only, from any source, and the period runs from the last examination rather than by calendar year.

Which statement about MPCI and the role of private insurers is correct?

  1. Private insurers are barred from MPCI, which the Risk Management Agency writes and services itself
  2. Private insurers sell and service MPCI policies under federal reinsurance through the RMA/FCIC ✓
  3. MPCI is sold only by agricultural lenders as a condition of an operating loan
  4. FEMA sells and adjusts all MPCI policies through the same regional offices that administer flood coverage

Why: MPCI is delivered by private insurers who sell and service the policies, with federal reinsurance and oversight provided through the RMA and the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation.

PAP Part C provides protection when the insured is injured by:

  1. A driver whose liability limits exceed the state's required minimums by a wide margin
  2. The insured's own negligence in a single-car crash
  3. An uninsured or underinsured motorist who is legally liable ✓
  4. A defective part installed by the auto's manufacturer

Why: Part C — Uninsured/Underinsured Motorists coverage pays damages the insured is legally entitled to recover from an owner/operator of an uninsured or underinsured vehicle.

What does 38a-322a provide about a certificate of insurance and the insurance or indemnification requirements of a contract?

  1. No certificate of insurance may warrant that the referenced policy complies with the insurance or indemnification requirements of a contract, and putting a contract number or a contract description on the certificate does not make such a warranty. ✓
  2. A certificate of insurance warrants that the referenced policy complies with the insurance or indemnification requirements of any contract identified on it by number or description, which is why a producer must check the contract before issuing a certificate that names it.
  3. No certificate of insurance may refer to a contract at all, whether by number or by description, and a producer who issues one that does forfeits not more than one thousand dollars for each offence in the same way as an agent who issues a fire policy on other than the standard form.
  4. A certificate of insurance may warrant compliance with the insurance requirements of a contract provided the warranty is given in an addendum that clarifies and explains the coverage, and provided the insurer rather than the producer prepares and issues that addendum.

Why: 38a-322a(c) provides that NO CERTIFICATE OF INSURANCE SHALL WARRANT THAT THE REFERENCED INSURANCE POLICY COMPLIES WITH THE INSURANCE OR INDEMNIFICATION REQUIREMENTS OF A CONTRACT. THE INCLUSION OF A CONTRACT NUMBER OR CONTRACT DESCRIPTION ON A CERTIFICATE OF INSURANCE SHALL NOT BE CONSTRUED AS MAKING SUCH A WARRANTY. 38a-322a(d) does permit an insurer or producer to issue an ADDENDUM TO A CERTIFICATE OF INSURANCE THAT CLARIFIES AND EXPLAINS THE COVERAGE PROVIDED, but an addendum may not do what subsection (c) forbids. 38a-322a(e) forbids requesting or requiring another person to do any of the acts prohibited by subsection (b), and 38a-322a(f) lets the commissioner investigate under 38a-16.

What does 38a-852 make a prohibited unfair trade practice?

  1. Failing to disclose to an applicant that the insurer proposed is a member of the association and that covered claims would be paid by it in the event of that insurer becoming insolvent.
  2. Placing business with an insurer whose financial strength rating has fallen below the level fixed by the commissioner by regulation for the class of business concerned.
  3. Advertising that a policy is protected by the association where the insurer concerned writes any line of business that section 38a-837 excludes from the Act's operation.
  4. Making use in any manner of the protection afforded by the Act in the solicitation, negotiation, procurement or effectuation of insurance. ✓

Why: 38a-852 provides that IT SHALL BE A PROHIBITED UNFAIR TRADE PRACTICE AND A VIOLATION OF SECTION 38a-815 FOR ANY PERSON TO MAKE USE IN ANY MANNER OF THE PROTECTION AFFORDED BY SECTIONS 38a-836 TO 38a-853 ... IN THE SOLICITATION, NEGOTIATION, PROCUREMENT OR EFFECTUATION OF INSURANCE, with an exception for DISTRIBUTION OF ANY PUBLICATION APPROVED BY THE COMMISSIONER describing the general purposes and current limitations. Violations go through the 38a-817 hearing route.

Under the CGL, 'property damage' is defined to include:

  1. Physical injury to tangible property only, with any resulting loss of use expressly excluded
  2. Purely economic loss such as lost profits and diminished market value, even where nothing tangible has been harmed, so long as the loss arises out of the insured's operations
  3. Bodily injury, sickness, or disease sustained by a person
  4. Physical injury to tangible property (including loss of use) and loss of use of tangible property that is not physically injured ✓

Why: Property damage means physical injury to tangible property including resulting loss of use, plus loss of use of undamaged tangible property.

How long does a named insured's selection of uninsured and underinsured motorist coverage last, under 38a-336(a)(1)(B)?

  1. It applies to the policy period for which it was made only, the insurer being required to obtain a fresh written selection from the named insured before each renewal of the policy takes effect.
  2. It applies to all subsequent renewals and to all policies or endorsements that extend, change, supersede or replace the existing policy, unless changed in writing by any named insured. ✓
  3. It applies until the policy is replaced by a policy issued by a different insurer, at which point the new insurer must obtain its own written selection from the named insured before cover attaches.
  4. It applies to all subsequent renewals, but lapses automatically if the named insured adds or removes a vehicle from the policy or changes the bodily injury liability limits carried under it.

Why: 38a-336(a)(1)(B) provides that THE INSURED'S SELECTION OF UNINSURED AND UNDERINSURED MOTORIST COVERAGE SHALL APPLY TO ALL SUBSEQUENT RENEWALS OF COVERAGE AND TO ALL POLICIES OR ENDORSEMENTS THAT EXTEND, CHANGE, SUPERSEDE OR REPLACE AN EXISTING POLICY ISSUED TO THE NAMED INSURED, UNLESS CHANGED IN WRITING BY ANY NAMED INSURED. The selection carries forward until it is changed in writing.

A false statement of a material fact on an application that, if known, would have changed the insurer's underwriting decision is a:

  1. Warranty
  2. Representation
  3. Misrepresentation ✓
  4. Estoppel

Why: A misrepresentation is a false statement; if it is material it can void the contract.

A driver negligently damages a utility pole. Hours later, a third party deliberately cuts the weakened pole down onto a passing car. The driver is likely not liable for the car damage because the third party's act was:

  1. A breach of the driver's duty of care
  2. A case of joint and several liability
  3. A form of strict liability imposed on the driver
  4. An intervening cause breaking the chain ✓

Why: An independent, unforeseeable act by another person that comes between the original negligence and the harm can break proximate cause, relieving the first wrongdoer.

A lender requires flood insurance as a condition of a mortgage because the property is in a Special Flood Hazard Area. This requirement comes from:

  1. The federal Do-Not-Call rules
  2. State law, which conditions the recording of every mortgage on proof of flood insurance before the closing may occur
  3. TRIA's make-available requirement
  4. Federal flood law requiring federally regulated lenders to mandate flood coverage in high-risk zones ✓

Why: Federal law requires lenders regulated or insured by the federal government to require flood insurance on properties located in Special Flood Hazard Areas.

Nonconcurrency refers to a situation where:

  1. Two or more policies covering the same risk have differing terms or coverage, creating gaps ✓
  2. The insured has allowed every applicable policy to lapse, so no coverage at all responds to the loss
  3. Two or more policies covering the same risk carry identical terms, so each one responds the same way
  4. Every policy covering the loss contributes an identical dollar amount regardless of the limits shown

Why: Nonconcurrency occurs when policies covering the same exposure do not have matching coverage terms, potentially leaving gaps or disputes.

Which of the following is generally TRUE about the relationship between the surety and the principal after the surety pays a loss to the obligee?

  1. The obligee must repay the surety within 90 days of the payment
  2. The surety has the right to seek reimbursement (subrogation/indemnity) from the principal ✓
  3. The surety absorbs the loss with no recourse, because the premium it charged was calculated to fund defaults of exactly this kind
  4. The bond is automatically cancelled and the unearned premium refunded

Why: After paying the obligee, the surety has a right of indemnity/subrogation against the principal, reflecting surety's guarantee nature.

Under the Homeowners policy, the policy period and territory generally cover losses occurring:

  1. Anywhere in the world for property losses, with liability confined to the United States mainland
  2. Only while the property is inside the described dwelling, since off-premises losses need an endorsement
  3. Only during hours the insured is present at the residence, as the policy suspends while it is unoccupied
  4. During the policy period within the coverage territory (U.S., its territories, and Canada) ✓

Why: Coverage applies to losses during the policy period within the policy territory, commonly the United States, its territories and possessions, and Canada.

What must the commissioner do after a hearing under 38a-990 where the charge is made out, and what where it is not, under 38a-992?

  1. Where it is made out, impose the penalties provided by section 38a-993 and publish the order in a newspaper of the state; where it is not, notify the person charged that the charges have been dismissed and close the file.
  2. Where it is made out, refer the matter to the Attorney General for an injunction; where it is not, prepare a written report of the findings and serve it on the person charged alone, the complainant having no further interest.
  3. Where made out, reduce the findings to writing and serve them with a cease and desist order; where not, prepare a written report of the findings and conclusions and serve it on the person charged and on the person whose rights were allegedly violated. ✓
  4. Where it is made out, suspend or revoke the licence of the person charged; where it is not, prepare a written report of the findings of fact and conclusions and file it with the Division of Consumer Affairs.

Why: 38a-992(a): where the commissioner determines that the person charged has engaged in conduct violating the sections, the commissioner shall reduce the findings to writing and issue and serve a copy of the findings with an order to cease and desist. 38a-992(b): where the commissioner determines that it has not, the commissioner shall prepare a written report setting out the findings of fact and conclusions, served on the person charged and on the person, if any, whose rights were allegedly violated.

Under the Dwelling Policy, if no liability supplement is attached, an injured visitor's medical bills are:

  1. Paid under Coverage E, which every Dwelling Policy includes for injuries on the premises
  2. Not covered, because the Dwelling Policy has no liability or med pay by default ✓
  3. Paid automatically under Coverage M up to $1,000 per injured person without regard to fault
  4. Paid from the Coverage A dwelling limit

Why: The basic Dwelling Policy contains no liability or medical payments coverage; these must be added via the personal liability supplement.

How does 38a-363(c) define OCCUPYING a vehicle?

  1. To be seated within the passenger compartment of the vehicle with the door closed, a person entering or leaving the vehicle being treated as a pedestrian for the purposes of these sections.
  2. To be in or upon the vehicle while it is in motion, a person in a stationary vehicle being covered only where the engine is running at the time the injury is sustained by that person.
  3. To be in or upon or entering into or alighting from the vehicle, so that a person who is not inside it at the moment of the injury may still be occupying it for purposes of the section. ✓
  4. To be in, upon, entering or alighting from the vehicle, or within twenty-five feet of it while engaged in an activity connected with its ownership, maintenance or use by the named insured.

Why: 38a-363(c) provides that OCCUPYING A VEHICLE MEANS TO BE IN OR UPON OR ENTERING INTO OR ALIGHTING FROM THE VEHICLE. The definition matters because 38a-336 turns on whether an insured was OCCUPYING an uninsured or underinsured vehicle. 38a-363(d) separately provides that where a vehicle is subject to a security agreement or a lease with option to purchase, the OWNER is the DEBTOR OR LESSEE having the right to possession, not the holder of legal title.

How do CGL aggregate limits reinstate?

  1. They reinstate automatically at the start of each new policy period (annual policy term) ✓
  2. They reinstate in full after each covered occurrence, so every loss draws on a fresh aggregate
  3. They never reinstate; the aggregate written at inception lasts for the life of the insured's business
  4. They reinstate only after the insurer pays a claim in full and the insured pays a reinstatement premium

Why: Aggregate limits are the most paid during the policy period and reset at each new annual policy term, not after each claim.

The Motor Carrier Coverage Form is most appropriate for:

  1. An individual insuring the family sedan for commuting
  2. A business that transports goods or people for hire (trucking) ✓
  3. A homeowner adding coverage for a car kept in the garage
  4. A motorcycle dealership that sells and services bikes

Why: The Motor Carrier Coverage Form is tailored for businesses that haul property or passengers for others, addressing trucking-specific exposures.

A claim might be recovered from more than one state's guaranty association. Under 38a-845(b), which one does the claimant approach first?

  1. The claim goes first to the association operating in the state where the insolvent insurer was domiciled at the date the order of liquidation was entered against it by a court of competent jurisdiction.
  2. The association operating in the area of the residence of the insured, except that a first party claim for property with a permanent location goes first to the one there. ✓
  3. The association operating in the state where the policy was issued and delivered to the insured, whatever the insured's residence at the time the insured event occurred.
  4. Any of them at the claimant's election, the associations settling any question of apportionment between themselves after the claim has been paid to the claimant in full.

Why: 38a-845(b) provides that ANY PERSON HAVING A CLAIM WHICH MAY BE RECOVERED UNDER MORE THAN ONE INSURANCE GUARANTY ASSOCIATION OR ITS EQUIVALENT HAVING A LIKE FUNCTION ... SHALL SEEK RECOVERY FIRST FROM THE ASSOCIATION OPERATING IN THE AREA OF THE RESIDENCE OF THE INSURED, subject to the exceptions stated in the subsection. Residence of the INSURED is the first-instance rule.

Which statement about umbrella defense costs is generally true?

  1. The umbrella never provides a defense of any kind, because the duty to defend belongs exclusively to the primary insurer under its own insuring agreement
  2. If the underlying policy does not cover a loss but the umbrella does, the umbrella typically provides defense once the SIR is satisfied ✓
  3. The umbrella pays indemnity only and never defense costs, so an insured facing a claim outside the underlying coverage must fund its own defense
  4. Defense is always paid within the underlying policy's limit, even for claims the underlying does not cover

Why: For losses covered by the umbrella but not underlying, the umbrella generally defends after the insured satisfies the SIR.

In the Homeowners policy, the term 'insured location' generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. Other premises acquired during the policy period for use as a residence
  2. The residence premises
  3. A commercial warehouse rented to a third party ✓
  4. Vacant land owned by the insured

Why: Insured location includes the residence premises, newly acquired residences, vacant land, and certain other personal-use premises, but not a separately rented commercial property.

38a-41(a) requires an applicant company to file certain material with its application for a licence. Which set?

  1. A certified copy of its charter, the names of its officers and directors with their biographical affidavits, a statement of financial condition audited by independent accountants, and a surety bond in an amount the commissioner fixes.
  2. A certified copy of its licence from its domiciliary state, a statement of the lines it is authorised to write there, evidence of its rating by a nationally recognised rating agency, and evidence of good management.
  3. A certified copy of its charter or articles of association, the policy forms and rates it proposes to use in this state, a statement of financial condition in the required form, and a plan of operation for each line sought.
  4. A certified copy of its charter or articles of association, evidence of compliance with the laws of the jurisdiction under which it is organised, a statement of financial condition with evidence of its correctness, and evidence of good management. ✓

Why: 38a-41(a): the applicant shall file with the commissioner a certified copy of its charter or articles of association and evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that it has complied with the laws of the jurisdiction under which it is organized, a statement of its financial condition in such form as is required by the commissioner, together with such evidence of its correctness as the commissioner requires and evidence of good management in such form as is required by the commissioner.

38a-307a treats a terrorism exclusion in the standard fire policy differently for two kinds of policy. What is the distinction it draws?

  1. For a condominium association master policy under section 47-83 or a unit owners' association master policy under section 47-255 the standard form may not exclude terrorism; for any other commercial risk policy it may, provided the premium charged reflects any savings projected from the exclusion. ✓
  2. For a condominium association master policy under section 47-83 or a unit owners' association master policy under section 47-255 the standard form may exclude terrorism only with the written consent of the association; for any other commercial risk policy the exclusion is prohibited outright while the federal programme remains in force.
  3. For any personal risk insurance policy the standard form may not exclude terrorism; for a commercial risk policy it may exclude terrorism without condition, the commissioner having no authority over the pricing of an exclusion that the federal Terrorism Risk Insurance Act expressly permits an insurer to make.
  4. For a condominium association master policy the standard form may not exclude terrorism unless the association is offered the coverage and declines it in writing; for any other commercial risk policy the exclusion is permitted provided the insurer files the projected premium saving with the commissioner before using it.

Why: 38a-307a provides that until the expiration of the federal Terrorism Insurance Program, (1) for a master policy required to be purchased by a condominium association under section 47-83 or a unit owners' association under section 47-255, THE STANDARD FORM OF FIRE INSURANCE POLICY SET FORTH IN SECTION 38a-307 SHALL NOT EXCLUDE COVERAGE FOR LOSS ... CAUSED, DIRECTLY OR INDIRECTLY, BY TERRORISM, AS DEFINED BY THE INSURANCE COMMISSIONER; and (2) for ANY OTHER COMMERCIAL RISK INSURANCE POLICY the form MAY PROVIDE that the company is not liable for such loss, PROVIDED THE PREMIUMS CHARGED FOR SUCH POLICY SHALL REFLECT ANY SAVINGS PROJECTED FROM THE EXCLUSION OF SUCH PERILS. Note that 38a-307 itself opens with the words EXCEPT AS PROVIDED IN SECTION 38a-307a.

How is a member insurer's assessment calculated under 38a-841(a)(3), how much notice must it have, and what caps it?

  1. In the proportion that its net direct written premiums for the calendar year in which the assessment is levied on the kinds of insurance in that account bear to those of all member insurers; notice not later than sixty days before it is due; and no more than two per cent of those premiums in any year across all three accounts together.
  2. In equal shares among all member insurers writing the kinds of insurance in that account, whatever their respective volumes of business; notice not later than thirty days before it is due; and no more than five per cent of the member insurer's net direct written premiums in any year on any one account.
  3. In the proportion that its net direct written premiums for the calendar year preceding the assessment on the kinds of insurance in that account bear to those of all member insurers; notice not later than thirty days before it is due; and no more than two per cent of those premiums in any year on any account. ✓
  4. In the proportion that its admitted assets bear to the admitted assets of all member insurers writing the kinds of insurance in that account; notice not later than thirty days before it is due; and no more than two per cent of the member insurer's net direct written premiums for the preceding calendar year on any account.

Why: 38a-841(a)(3) requires the association to allocate claims paid and expenses among the three accounts separately and to assess members separately for each account, and provides that THE ASSESSMENTS OF EACH MEMBER INSURER SHALL BE IN THE PROPORTION THAT THE NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS OF SUCH MEMBER INSURER FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SUCH ACCOUNT BEARS TO THE NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS OF ALL MEMBER INSURERS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SUCH ACCOUNT. EACH MEMBER INSURER SHALL BE NOTIFIED OF ITS ASSESSMENT NOT LATER THAN THIRTY DAYS BEFORE IT IS DUE. NO MEMBER INSURER MAY BE ASSESSED IN ANY YEAR ON ANY ACCOUNT AN AMOUNT GREATER THAN TWO PER CENT OF THAT MEMBER INSURER'S NET DIRECT WRITTEN PREMIUMS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR PRECEDING THE ASSESSMENT ON THE KINDS OF INSURANCE IN SAID ACCOUNT. Preceding year, premiums not assets, and two per cent PER ACCOUNT rather than in total. The assessment pays the obligations under 38a-841(a)(1), the expenses of handling covered claims, the cost of examinations under 38a-846 and other authorised expenses.

The characteristic that requires certain acts, such as paying premium and providing proof of loss, before the insurer must pay a claim is that insurance is a contract of:

  1. Aleatory nature
  2. Conditional nature ✓
  3. Indemnity
  4. Adhesion

Why: Insurance is a conditional contract because both parties must meet certain conditions before the contract can be enforced.

A single limit of insurance covering multiple items or multiple locations under one amount is:

  1. Specific insurance
  2. Scheduled insurance
  3. Blanket insurance ✓
  4. Valued insurance

Why: Blanket insurance applies a single limit across multiple properties, items, or locations rather than assigning separate limits.

An insurance policy is a unilateral contract because:

  1. Only the insured makes a legally enforceable promise
  2. Only the insurer makes a legally enforceable promise ✓
  3. Both parties make legally enforceable promises
  4. Neither party makes any promise

Why: In a unilateral contract, only one party, the insurer, makes a legally enforceable promise; the insured is not legally obligated to pay future premiums.

Which property does the standard fire policy NOT cover unless specifically named in writing?

  1. Money and securities; accounts, bills, deeds and evidences of debt may be covered if the company endorses the policy to that effect before the loss occurs.
  2. Bullion or manuscripts, only if specifically named in writing; accounts, bills, currency, deeds, evidences of debt, money and securities are not covered. ✓
  3. Jewellery, furs and fine art, each covered only if specifically named in writing, subject to the limits the company sets for property of that description.
  4. Bullion, manuscripts and currency, each of which may be added by written endorsement subject to a sub-limit stated in the declarations of the policy.

Why: The UNINSURABLE AND EXCEPTED PROPERTY clause of the standard form at 38a-307 provides that THIS POLICY SHALL NOT COVER ACCOUNTS, BILLS, CURRENCY, DEEDS, EVIDENCES OF DEBT, MONEY OR SECURITIES; NOR, UNLESS SPECIFICALLY NAMED HEREON IN WRITING, BULLION OR MANUSCRIPTS. Two tiers: the first list is never covered, and bullion and manuscripts may be covered only if specifically named.

For a property insurance policy, when must the insured generally have an insurable interest?

  1. At the time of loss (typically), and arguably at policy inception ✓
  2. Only at the time of the loss, and never at any earlier point
  3. Never - insurable interest is a life insurance requirement and has no application to property
  4. Only at the time the policy is purchased, and never afterwards

Why: In property insurance, insurable interest must exist at the time of loss because the policy indemnifies actual financial loss to the property. Many insurers also expect it at inception.

Which Homeowners form provides the narrowest, modified settlement and is limited in covered perils for the dwelling?

  1. HO-2
  2. HO-3
  3. HO-8 ✓
  4. HO-6

Why: HO-8 is the Modified Coverage Form with restricted perils and functional/repair-cost settlement, designed for older homes; it is narrower than HO-2 or HO-3.

Protection and Indemnity (P&I) coverage in ocean marine provides:

  1. Freight coverage on the shipowner's earnings if the cargo is never delivered to the consignee
  2. Cargo coverage on the goods carried in the holds
  3. Hull physical damage to the vessel, its machinery, and its equipment from perils of the sea
  4. Third-party liability coverage for the shipowner (injury, cargo damage, etc.) ✓

Why: P&I provides broad third-party liability protection for shipowners, including bodily injury, illness of crew, damage to cargo, and other liabilities not covered by hull policies.

Under the PAP, a trailer owned by the named insured is:

  1. Covered only under Part B, because a trailer has no separate liability exposure of its own while in tow
  2. Never covered unless a separate trailer policy is purchased
  3. Covered only if it is used for commercial hauling and rated as a commercial unit on the declarations
  4. A covered auto for liability (and physical damage if scheduled), within policy terms ✓

Why: Owned trailers are included as covered autos for liability; physical damage on a trailer generally requires it to be scheduled.

The policy section that defines the rights and duties of both parties, such as duties after a loss and cancellation, is the:

  1. Insuring agreement
  2. Declarations
  3. Conditions ✓
  4. Definitions

Why: The conditions section spells out the rules, rights, and duties governing how the policy operates for both insurer and insured.

A coal miner who develops pneumoconiosis (black lung disease) from workplace dust exposure may receive benefits under:

  1. The Defense Base Act, which covers respiratory illness in workers at government-contracted sites
  2. The Jones Act, for dust below decks
  3. The Black Lung Benefits Act (Federal Mine Safety) ✓
  4. FELA, on proof of employer negligence

Why: The Black Lung Benefits Act provides compensation to coal miners who are totally disabled by pneumoconiosis (black lung) arising from mine employment.

The Accounts Receivable floater covers loss resulting from:

  1. Customers who simply refuse to pay invoices the insured has correctly billed them for
  2. Poor credit decisions that leave the insured extending terms to unreliable buyers
  3. A market downturn that reduces the amount customers are able to pay the insured
  4. Inability to collect because records were destroyed by a covered peril ✓

Why: Accounts Receivable coverage pays for sums the insured cannot collect because receivable records were lost or destroyed by a covered cause of loss, plus extra collection and reconstruction costs.

38a-686(b)(3) forbids assigning a surcharge on a motor vehicle liability or physical damage premium in several situations. Which of the following is one of them?

  1. Any accident involving only property damage of five hundred dollars or less, and the first two accidents involving only property damage of more than that sum which would otherwise result in a surcharge within the experience period in the insurer's safe driver classification plan.
  2. Any accident caused by the named insured, by a relative residing in the named insured's household or by a person who customarily operates the insured vehicle, whether or not the insured was at fault in it or was convicted of a moving traffic violation arising out of it.
  3. Any accident involving only property damage of one thousand dollars or less, and the first accident involving only property damage of more than that sum that would otherwise lead to a surcharge within the experience period of the insurer's safe driver plan. ✓
  4. Any violation of section 14-219, including one that results in the suspension or revocation of the operator's licence under section 14-111b, and any number of violations of section 14-218a within a one-year period however many of them there may have been.

Why: 38a-686(b)(3) provides that NO SURCHARGE ON ANY MOTOR VEHICLE LIABILITY OR PHYSICAL DAMAGE INSURANCE PREMIUM SHALL BE ASSIGNED FOR (A) ANY ACCIDENT INVOLVING ONLY PROPERTY DAMAGE OF ONE THOUSAND DOLLARS OR LESS, (B) THE FIRST ACCIDENT INVOLVING ONLY PROPERTY DAMAGE OF MORE THAN ONE THOUSAND DOLLARS WHICH WOULD OTHERWISE RESULT IN A SURCHARGE ... WITHIN THE EXPERIENCE PERIOD SET FORTH IN THE INSURER'S SAFE DRIVER CLASSIFICATION PLAN, (C) ANY VIOLATION OF SECTION 14-219 UNLESS SUCH VIOLATION RESULTS IN THE SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF THE OPERATOR'S LICENSE UNDER SECTION 14-111b, (D) LESS THAN THREE VIOLATIONS OF SECTION 14-218a WITHIN ANY ONE-YEAR PERIOD, (E) ANY ACCIDENT CAUSED BY AN OPERATOR OTHER THAN THE NAMED INSURED, A RELATIVE RESIDING IN THE NAMED INSURED'S HOUSEHOLD, OR A PERSON WHO CUSTOMARILY OPERATES THE INSURED VEHICLE, (F) THE FIRST OR SECOND ACCIDENT WITHIN THE CURRENT EXPERIENCE PERIOD IN RELATION TO WHICH THE INSURED WAS NOT CONVICTED OF A MOVING TRAFFIC VIOLATION AND WAS NOT AT FAULT, OR (G) ANY MOTOR VEHICLE INFRACTION. Subparagraph (G) does not apply to a plan established under 38a-329. A bar on surcharges for every accident caused by the named insured or a household driver, fault or no fault, inverts (E), which protects the insured where SOMEONE ELSE was driving, and goes beyond (F), which protects only the first or second accident in which the insured was not at fault and not convicted.

Dividends paid to the policyholders of a mutual insurer are:

  1. Not guaranteed and are a return of surplus ✓
  2. Guaranteed each year by contract
  3. Taxable as ordinary income to the insured
  4. Paid only to the stockholders

Why: Mutual policy dividends are not guaranteed; they represent a return of unused premium and are generally not taxable.

Which of the following is generally EXCLUDED from a standard Homeowners policy without an endorsement?

  1. Fire damage to the dwelling under Coverage A
  2. Wind damage to the roof shingles
  3. Theft of insured personal property
  4. Earth movement (earthquake) and flood ✓

Why: Earthquake and flood are standard exclusions; earthquake can be added by endorsement and flood is covered separately through the NFIP.

A neighbor takes the named insured's car from the driveway without asking, knowing he has no permission, and crashes into a parked van. Under the named insured's Part A, the neighbor:

  1. Is an insured, since anyone using the covered auto qualifies
  2. Is excluded, lacking any reasonable belief of entitlement ✓
  3. Is covered for property damage only, up to the state minimum
  4. Is covered, but the insurer may later recover from him

Why: Part A excludes any insured using a vehicle without a reasonable belief that he is entitled to do so. The only carve-out is for a family member using the named insured's own covered auto, which does not help a neighbor.

In a competitive state fund jurisdiction, the state fund:

  1. Writes only Employers Liability, leaving benefits to carriers
  2. Is the only lawful source of workers compensation coverage
  3. Competes with private insurers as one option among many ✓
  4. Is reserved for federal employees covered by the FECA program

Why: A competitive state fund operates alongside private insurers; employers may buy WC from the state fund or from private carriers.

Which is a standard exclusion under the Business Auto Coverage Form liability coverage?

  1. Liability arising from an owned auto shown in the Declarations
  2. Bodily injury to any member of the public who is struck by a covered auto on a public street
  3. Workers compensation obligations / injury to an employee in the course of employment ✓
  4. Property damage to a customer's building struck by a covered auto

Why: The BACF excludes liability covered by workers compensation and injury to an employee arising out of and in the course of employment, among other exclusions.

A package policy covers fire and substantial other perils for an indivisible premium. Under 38a-308(b) it need not comply with subsection (a), but only on conditions. Which of the following is one of them?

  1. Four provisions of the standard fire policy must be incorporated without change: mortgagee interests and obligations, the appraisal clause, the cancellation clause and the time for commencing a suit to recover a claim, the definitions of actual cash value and depreciation being open to variation by any insurer writing package business.
  2. The policy must afford coverage against the peril of fire not less than twice the coverage the standard fire policy affords, must exclude the increased cost of repair or reconstruction by reason of any ordinance or law, and must be filed with and approved by the commissioner before it is used.
  3. The policy must be complete as to all its terms without reference to any other document, and must incorporate the whole of the standard fire insurance policy set out in 38a-307 by reference, so that in the event of any conflict the standard form displaces the terms of the package policy.
  4. Four provisions of the standard fire policy must be incorporated without change: mortgagee interests and obligations, the definitions of actual cash value and depreciation, the time for payment of a loss after proof of loss, and the time for commencing a suit to recover a claim. ✓

Why: 38a-308(b) excuses such a policy from subsection (a) provided (1) it affords fire cover NOT LESS THAN THE SUBSTANTIAL EQUIVALENT of the standard policy; (2) the following provisions are INCORPORATED THEREIN WITHOUT CHANGE: (A) MORTGAGEE INTERESTS AND OBLIGATIONS, (B) THE DEFINITIONS OF ACTUAL CASH VALUE AND DEPRECIATION, (C) THE TIME PERIOD FOR WHEN A LOSS IS PAYABLE AFTER PROOF OF LOSS, AND (D) THE TIME PERIOD FOR WHEN A SUIT OR ACTION FOR THE RECOVERY OF A CLAIM MAY BE COMMENCED - subject to the nonadmitted commercial depreciation exception in 38a-308(a)(1); (3) it AFFORDS COVERAGE, IN AN AMOUNT NOT GREATER THAN THE AMOUNT SPECIFIED ..., FOR THE INCREASED COST OF REPAIR OR RECONSTRUCTION BY REASON OF ORDINANCES OR LAWS; (4) it IS COMPLETE AS TO ALL OF ITS TERMS WITHOUT REFERENCE TO ANY OTHER DOCUMENT; and (5) the commissioner is satisfied. Note that condition (3) requires ordinance-or-law cover to be AFFORDED, the opposite of the standard form's own exclusion of it, and that (4) rules out incorporation by reference.

After a flood, the community declares an insured home substantially damaged and requires it to be elevated. NFIP Increased Cost of Compliance coverage pays up to:

  1. $10,000
  2. $20,000
  3. $30,000 ✓
  4. $50,000

Why: Increased Cost of Compliance pays up to $30,000 to elevate, floodproof, relocate or demolish a building to meet floodplain rules after a substantial or repetitive flood loss. It sits alongside the building limit, though the combined payment cannot exceed the program maximum.

A shopper enters a retail store to buy groceries. In premises liability terms, the shopper is generally classed as:

  1. A licensee, owed a warning of known dangers
  2. A trespasser, owed only freedom from willful harm
  3. An invitee, owed reasonable care including inspection ✓
  4. A bailee, owed reasonable care of their goods

Why: A person on the premises for the owner's business benefit is an invitee, owed reasonable inspection and repair. A social guest is the usual example of a licensee.

What may the commissioner do to a company licence under 38a-41(c), and what may the commissioner make public?

  1. Suspend, revoke or refuse to renew it at any time for cause, and in lieu of or in addition to that impose a fine not exceeding fifty thousand dollars after reasonable notice and hearing; and publish in one or more newspapers of the state a statement that a licence has been suspended or revoked, if the commissioner deems it in the public interest. ✓
  2. Suspend, revoke or refuse to renew it at any time for cause, and in lieu of or in addition to that impose a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars after reasonable notice and hearing; and publish in one or more newspapers of the state a statement that a licence has been suspended or revoked, if the commissioner deems it in the public interest.
  3. Suspend, revoke or refuse to renew it only after a hearing held by the commissioner personally, and impose a fine not exceeding fifty thousand dollars in lieu of suspension or revocation but never in addition to it; the fact of a suspension or revocation is confidential under section 38a-8(f) until any appeal has been determined.
  4. Suspend, revoke or refuse to renew it at any time for cause, and in addition impose a fine not exceeding fifty thousand dollars for each act or violation without any aggregate limit; and publish a statement of the suspension or revocation in one or more newspapers of the state in every case.

Why: 38a-41(c) provides that THE COMMISSIONER MAY, AT ANY TIME, FOR CAUSE, SUSPEND, REVOKE OR REFUSE TO RENEW ANY SUCH LICENSE OR IN LIEU OF OR IN ADDITION TO SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION ... MAY IMPOSE A FINE NOT TO EXCEED FIFTY THOUSAND DOLLARS, after reasonable notice and hearing. Hearings MAY BE HELD BY THE COMMISSIONER OR ANY PERSON DESIGNATED BY THE COMMISSIONER, a designated hearing officer submitting A MEMORANDUM OF THE PERSON'S FINDINGS AND RECOMMENDATIONS UPON WHICH THE COMMISSIONER MAY BASE A DECISION. The commissioner MAY, IF THE COMMISSIONER DEEMS IT IN THE INTEREST OF THE PUBLIC, PUBLISH IN ONE OR MORE NEWSPAPERS OF THE STATE A STATEMENT that a licence has been suspended or revoked. Do not blend the fifty thousand dollars here with the five thousand dollars a PRODUCER may be fined under 38a-774(a). 38a-41(f) sends an appeal to the judicial district of New Britain under section 4-183, privileged as to trial assignment.

Functional replacement cost valuation pays to replace damaged property with:

  1. Less costly but functionally equivalent materials ✓
  2. Identical materials only, matched to the original in every respect
  3. The market value of the property immediately before the loss occurred
  4. Property of greater value than that which was damaged or destroyed

Why: Functional replacement cost permits using modern, less expensive materials that serve the same function as obsolete originals.

Loss of use (transportation expenses) coverage in the PAP for a theft loss typically begins:

  1. After a waiting period (e.g., 48 hours) following the theft ✓
  2. At the moment the auto is stolen, with no waiting period, provided the theft is reported to police
  3. Never for theft losses, since transportation expense follows only collision repairs to the covered auto
  4. Only once the stolen auto is recovered and the insured learns how long the repairs will take

Why: For a theft of the covered auto, transportation expense coverage typically begins a set number of hours (e.g., 48) after the theft is reported.

To add liability protection to a Dwelling Policy, which is typically attached?

  1. Ordinance or Law endorsement
  2. Inflation guard endorsement
  3. Personal Liability Supplement ✓
  4. Scheduled Personal Property endorsement

Why: Because the Dwelling Policy has no built-in liability, a Personal Liability Supplement is added to provide Coverage L (liability) and Coverage M (medical payments).

How much notice of a hearing under 38a-990(a) must the commissioner give, and what may prompt the hearing?

  1. Not less than twenty days from the date of service; conduct in this state violating the chapter, or any complaint made to the Division of Consumer Affairs about an insurer's handling of personal information.
  2. Not less than thirty days from the date of service; conduct in this state violating the chapter, or conduct outside it by an insurance-support organisation affecting a resident of this state. ✓
  3. Not less than ten days from the date of service; conduct in this state violating the chapter, whether by an insurer, an agent or an insurance-support organisation wherever that organisation is located.
  4. Not less than thirty days from the date of service; conduct anywhere by an insurer licensed in this state, whether or not the conduct has any effect on a resident of this state.

Why: 38a-990(a): where the commissioner has reason to believe that an insurance institution, agent or insurance-support organization has engaged or is engaging in conduct in this state violating the chapter, or that an insurance-support organization has engaged or is engaging in conduct OUTSIDE this state which has an effect on a resident of this state and violates the sections, the commissioner shall serve a statement of charges and a notice of hearing, the date of which shall not be less than thirty days after the date of service.

What power does 38a-815 give the commissioner in aid of the unfair practices sections?

  1. To suspend the certificate of authority of any insurer against which three or more complaints alleging a prohibited practice have been substantiated in a calendar year.
  2. To require every licensed insurer to file an annual certificate of compliance with the unfair practices sections, signed by an officer of the company.
  3. To examine the affairs of every person engaged in the business of insurance in this state to determine whether that person has been or is engaged in a prohibited practice. ✓
  4. To refer any suspected prohibited practice to the Attorney General, who then has exclusive authority to investigate the matter and to bring proceedings under the general statutes.

Why: 38a-815 gives the commissioner POWER TO EXAMINE THE AFFAIRS OF EVERY PERSON ENGAGED IN THE BUSINESS OF INSURANCE IN THIS STATE IN ORDER TO DETERMINE WHETHER SUCH PERSON HAS BEEN OR IS ENGAGED IN ANY UNFAIR METHOD OF COMPETITION OR IN ANY UNFAIR OR DECEPTIVE ACT OR PRACTICE PROHIBITED BY SECTIONS 38a-815 TO 38a-819, INCLUSIVE. It is an examination power, held alongside the examination powers in chapter 697.

How does 38a-336(e) define an underinsured motor vehicle, and how does that differ from the definition used for conversion coverage in 38a-336a(e)?

  1. Under 38a-336(e) the vehicle is underinsured if the payments actually received from the tortfeasor are less than the covered person's fair, just and reasonable damages; under 38a-336a(e) it is underinsured if the sum of the tortfeasor's applicable liability limits is less than the limits of the policy claimed against.
  2. Both sections use the same test, comparing the sum of the tortfeasor's applicable liability limits against the uninsured motorist limits of the policy claimed against; what conversion coverage changes is the order of payment, not the definition of an underinsured motor vehicle at all.
  3. Under 38a-336(e) the vehicle is underinsured if its liability limits are below the minimum required by section 14-112(a); under 38a-336a(e) it is underinsured if its limits are at or above that minimum but below the limits carried by the policy against which the claim is made.
  4. Under 38a-336(e) the vehicle is underinsured if the sum of the tortfeasor's applicable liability limits is less than the uninsured motorist limits of the policy claimed against; under 38a-336a(e) it is underinsured if the payments actually received from the tortfeasor are less than the covered person's damages. ✓

Why: 38a-336(e) provides that an UNDERINSURED MOTOR VEHICLE MEANS A MOTOR VEHICLE WITH RESPECT TO WHICH THE SUM OF THE LIMITS OF LIABILITY UNDER ALL BODILY INJURY LIABILITY BONDS AND INSURANCE POLICIES APPLICABLE AT THE TIME OF THE ACCIDENT IS LESS THAN THE APPLICABLE LIMITS OF LIABILITY UNDER THE UNINSURED MOTORIST PORTION OF THE POLICY AGAINST WHICH CLAIM IS MADE. 38a-336a(e) instead provides that for conversion coverage the vehicle is underinsured where THE SUM OF ALL PAYMENTS RECEIVED BY OR ON BEHALF OF THE COVERED PERSON FROM OR ON BEHALF OF THE TORTFEASOR ARE LESS THAN THE FAIR, JUST AND REASONABLE DAMAGES OF THE COVERED PERSON. Limits against limits in one, payments against damages in the other.

Because an insurance policy is a contract of adhesion, any ambiguity in its wording is generally:

  1. Considered void and unenforceable, so the provision containing it is struck out
  2. Resolved in favor of the insured, against the insurer who drafted it ✓
  3. Sent to the state insurance department for an authoritative interpretation
  4. Resolved in favor of the insurer who drafted it, since it chose the wording

Why: Since the insurer drafts the contract, ambiguities are construed against the drafter and in favor of the insured.

The Automatic Increase in Insurance (inflation guard) endorsement on a dwelling policy does what?

  1. Converts an actual cash value dwelling policy to replacement cost settlement at the next renewal
  2. Periodically increases the Coverage A limit to keep pace with inflation ✓
  3. Automatically adds theft coverage on the dwelling once the limit has risen above its original amount
  4. Lowers the premium each year in which no claim is filed

Why: The inflation guard / automatic increase endorsement raises the dwelling limit at set intervals to help the amount of insurance keep up with rising construction costs.

Bodily injury caused by a defect in a product after it has left the insured's possession is subject to which aggregate limit?

  1. General Aggregate Limit
  2. Products-Completed Operations Aggregate Limit ✓
  3. Damage to Premises Rented Limit
  4. Personal and Advertising Injury Limit

Why: Products and completed operations losses are capped by the separate Products-Completed Operations Aggregate.

38a-832 restricts what an insurer may say to a person with a bodily injury or wrongful death claim against its insured. What is forbidden?

  1. Any direct contact with the claimant before the claimant has had a reasonable opportunity to consult an attorney of the claimant's own choosing.
  2. Any offer of settlement communicated before the claimant has had the opportunity to obtain independent legal advice about the value of the claim being made.
  3. Any statement about the limits of the insured's liability policy, which may be disclosed only in response to a written request signed by the claimant or the claimant's representative.
  4. Any written communication or oral statement that affirmatively advises against the need for, or discourages the retention of, an attorney to represent that person. ✓

Why: 38a-832(a) provides that NO INSURER LICENSED TO TRANSACT BUSINESS IN THIS STATE MAY, ON BEHALF OF ITSELF OR ITS INSURED, SEND OR KNOWINGLY PERMIT TO BE SENT ANY WRITTEN COMMUNICATION OR MAKE ANY ORAL STATEMENT TO ANY PERSON KNOWN OR BELIEVED TO HAVE A CLAIM FOR BODILY INJURY OR WRONGFUL DEATH AGAINST ONE OF ITS INSUREDS THAT AFFIRMATIVELY ADVISES AGAINST THE NEED FOR OR DISCOURAGES THE RETENTION OF AN ATTORNEY.

NFIP flood insurance provides which type of loss settlement for personal property (contents)?

  1. Replacement cost
  2. Agreed value
  3. Stated amount
  4. Actual cash value ✓

Why: Contents under the NFIP are always settled on an actual cash value basis, while only the building under certain conditions may be settled at replacement cost.

For an owned pickup or van to qualify as a 'covered auto' under the PAP, its gross vehicle weight rating must not exceed:

  1. 6,000 pounds
  2. 8,000 pounds
  3. 10,000 pounds ✓
  4. 12,000 pounds

Why: The PAP treats an owned pickup or van as eligible only if its gross vehicle weight rating is 10,000 pounds or less and it is not used to deliver or transport goods, other than incidentally to installing or repairing furnishings or equipment, or for farming or ranching.

The Information Page of the Workers Compensation policy is most analogous to which component of other commercial policies?

  1. The endorsement schedule
  2. The declarations page ✓
  3. The exclusions section
  4. The conditions section

Why: The Information Page functions like a declarations page, showing the insured, policy period, listed states, classifications, premium basis, and limits for Part Two.

Underinsured motorists (UIM) coverage applies when:

  1. The insured wants collision limits raised above the actual cash value of the covered auto without paying more premium
  2. The at-fault driver's liability limits are insufficient to fully cover the insured's damages ✓
  3. The at-fault driver has no liability insurance whatsoever
  4. The insured driver is the one at fault and wants their own injuries paid from their liability limits

Why: UIM applies when the at-fault driver has insurance, but with limits lower than the damages, allowing the insured to recover the difference up to the UIM limit.

How does 38a-289 treat contracts of reinsurance?

  1. They are deemed insurance contracts in every respect, so that the statutory requirements as to the form of insurance policies apply to them in the same way as to a direct contract of insurance.
  2. They are not insurance contracts at all but contracts of indemnity between companies, and are therefore outside the commissioner's jurisdiction except as to the credit an insurer may take for them.
  3. They are deemed insurance contracts only where the reinsurer is authorised to do business in this state, reinsurance placed with an unauthorised reinsurer being governed by the surplus lines provisions.
  4. They are deemed insurance contracts, but the hazard under them is declared distinct in nature from the hazard originally insured, and form-of-policy law does not apply unless made specifically applicable. ✓

Why: 38a-289 provides that CONTRACTS FOR REINSURANCE SHALL BE DEEMED INSURANCE CONTRACTS, BUT THE HAZARD UNDER SUCH CONTRACTS IS DECLARED TO BE DISTINCT IN NATURE FROM THE HAZARD ORIGINALLY INSURED, and that NO PROVISION OF LAW RELATIVE TO THE FORM OF INSURANCE CONTRACTS OR POLICIES SHALL APPLY TO CONTRACTS OF REINSURANCE UNLESS MADE SPECIFICALLY APPLICABLE THERETO. The issuing company otherwise remains subject to its charter and the statutes so far as applicable.